Spinal anesthesia MCQs

By: Prof. Dr. Fazal Rehman Shamil | Last updated: September 13, 2024

Spinal Anesthesia MCQs

1. What is the primary purpose of spinal anesthesia?
   a) To provide general anesthesia
   b) To induce muscle relaxation
   c) To achieve a reversible loss of sensation below the level of injection
   d) To enhance surgical field visibilityAnswer: c) To achieve a reversible loss of sensation below the level of injection
2. Where is spinal anesthesia administered?
   a) Epidural space
   b) Subarachnoid space
   c) Intrathecal space
   d) Dural spaceAnswer: b) Subarachnoid space
3. Which of the following is a common indication for spinal anesthesia?
   a) Major abdominal surgery
   b) Cesarean section
   c) Endoscopic procedures
   d) General anesthesia for all surgeriesAnswer: b) Cesarean section
4. Which needle gauge is typically used for spinal anesthesia?
   a) 18-gauge
   b) 22-gauge
   c) 25-gauge
   d) 30-gaugeAnswer: c) 25-gauge
5. What is the main advantage of spinal anesthesia over general anesthesia?
   a) Faster recovery
   b) Reduced risk of respiratory complications
   c) Greater muscle relaxation
   d) Longer duration of actionAnswer: b) Reduced risk of respiratory complications
6. What is a common complication of spinal anesthesia?
   a) Epidural hematoma
   b) Spinal headache
   c) Cardiac arrest
   d) High blood pressureAnswer: b) Spinal headache
7. Which position is commonly used for administering spinal anesthesia?
   a) Supine
   b) Prone
   c) Lateral decubitus
   d) Sitting uprightAnswer: d) Sitting upright
8. What is the primary structure that must be avoided during spinal anesthesia?
   a) Spinal cord
   b) Epidural fat
   c) Vertebral artery
   d) Intervertebral discAnswer: a) Spinal cord
9. What is the most common local anesthetic used in spinal anesthesia?
   a) Lidocaine
   b) Bupivacaine
   c) Ropivacaine
   d) PropofolAnswer: b) Bupivacaine
10. Which complication is associated with a “wet tap” during spinal anesthesia?
    a) Epidural hematoma
    b) Spinal cord injury
    c) Dural puncture headache
    d) Drug toxicityAnswer: c) Dural puncture headache
11. What is a key benefit of using a smaller gauge needle for spinal anesthesia?
    a) Reduced risk of post-dural puncture headache
    b) Faster onset of anesthesia
    c) Longer duration of action
    d) Enhanced muscle relaxationAnswer: a) Reduced risk of post-dural puncture headache
12. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for spinal anesthesia?
    a) Severe coagulopathy
    b) Presence of an infection at the injection site
    c) Controlled diabetes
    d) Increased intracranial pressureAnswer: c) Controlled diabetes
13. How is the correct placement of the spinal needle typically confirmed?
    a) Fluoroscopy
    b) Aspiration of cerebrospinal fluid
    c) Test dose of anesthetic
    d) MRI scanAnswer: b) Aspiration of cerebrospinal fluid
14. Which of the following is a common side effect of spinal anesthesia?
    a) Hypotension
    b) Hyperthermia
    c) Tachycardia
    d) HyperglycemiaAnswer: a) Hypotension
15. What is the usual duration of action for a spinal block with bupivacaine?
    a) 30 minutes to 1 hour
    b) 1 to 3 hours
    c) 3 to 6 hours
    d) 6 to 12 hoursAnswer: b) 1 to 3 hours
16. Which anatomical landmark is often used to identify the appropriate site for spinal anesthesia?
    a) Iliac crest
    b) Xiphoid process
    c) Pubic symphysis
    d) Sternal notchAnswer: a) Iliac crest
17. Which of the following is a potential complication of spinal anesthesia if injected too high?
    a) Diaphragmatic paralysis
    b) Numbness in lower limbs
    c) Localized back pain
    d) Gastrointestinal bleedingAnswer: a) Diaphragmatic paralysis
18. What is a common method to manage hypotension resulting from spinal anesthesia?
    a) Administer intravenous fluids
    b) Increase the local anesthetic dose
    c) Provide oxygen
    d) Adjust the surgical positionAnswer: a) Administer intravenous fluids
19. Which patient position is typically avoided during spinal anesthesia administration?
    a) Lying supine
    b) Lying prone
    c) Sitting upright
    d) Lying in the lateral positionAnswer: b) Lying prone
20. What is the primary risk of injecting spinal anesthetic too low?
    a) Incomplete anesthesia
    b) Increased risk of hypotension
    c) Increased risk of spinal cord injury
    d) Prolonged recoveryAnswer: a) Incomplete anesthesia
21. Which of the following techniques is used to minimize the risk of dural puncture during spinal anesthesia?
    a) Use of a larger gauge needle
    b) Performing the procedure quickly
    c) Using a spinal needle with a pencil-point tip
    d) Administering a test doseAnswer: c) Using a spinal needle with a pencil-point tip
22. What should be monitored closely in a patient undergoing spinal anesthesia?
    a) Vital signs
    b) Urine output
    c) Blood glucose levels
    d) Electrolyte levelsAnswer: a) Vital signs
23. Which of the following is NOT a common complication of spinal anesthesia?
    a) Epidural abscess
    b) Local anesthetic toxicity
    c) Spinal cord injury
    d) FeverAnswer: d) Fever
24. What is the typical onset time for spinal anesthesia with bupivacaine?
    a) Immediate
    b) 5-10 minutes
    c) 15-20 minutes
    d) 30 minutesAnswer: b) 5-10 minutes
25. Which of the following local anesthetics is known for its longer duration of action?
    a) Lidocaine
    b) Ropivacaine
    c) Bupivacaine
    d) MepivacaineAnswer: c) Bupivacaine
26. Which of the following factors can increase the risk of spinal headache?
    a) Small gauge needle
    b) High volume of local anesthetic
    c) Dural puncture
    d) Proper needle placementAnswer: c) Dural puncture
27. Which patient position can be used to reduce the risk of hypotension following spinal anesthesia?
    a) Head-up position
    b) Trendelenburg position
    c) Left lateral position
    d) Supine positionAnswer: b) Trendelenburg position
28. What is the primary role of the spinal needle bevel in spinal anesthesia?
    a) To enhance the speed of injection
    b) To minimize tissue damage
    c) To improve the flow of cerebrospinal fluid
    d) To ensure precise needle placementAnswer: b) To minimize tissue damage
29. Which of the following is a contraindication for spinal anesthesia?
    a) Severe hypovolemia
    b) Controlled hypertension
    c) Presence of a minor infection
    d) Stable asthmaAnswer: a) Severe hypovolemia
30. What is a common method to check the spread of spinal anesthesia?
    a) Sensory and motor testing
    b) Measurement of blood pressure
    c) Monitoring heart rate
    d) Observation of breathing patternAnswer: a) Sensory and motor testing
31. Which of the following is a typical side effect of spinal anesthesia in the elderly?
    a) Increased sensitivity to hypotension
    b) Decreased muscle relaxation
    c) Increased incidence of nausea
    d) Higher risk of respiratory complicationsAnswer: a) Increased sensitivity to hypotension
32. What is the most common approach for spinal anesthesia in emergency cesarean sections?
    a) General anesthesia
    b) Epidural anesthesia
    c) Spinal anesthesia
    d) Local infiltrationAnswer: c) Spinal anesthesia
33. Which medication can be used to manage a spinal headache?
    a) Ibuprofen
    b) Acetaminophen
    c) Caffeine
    d) AntibioticsAnswer: c) Caffeine
34. Which local anesthetic property is crucial for spinal anesthesia?
    a) Potency
    b) Duration
    c) Onset speed
    d) All of the aboveAnswer: d) All of the above
35. What is the main goal of administering a “test dose” in spinal anesthesia?
    a) To determine the correct anesthetic dose
    b) To identify potential complications
    c) To confirm proper needle placement
    d) To measure the rate of drug absorptionAnswer: c) To confirm proper needle placement
36. Which of the following is a sign of local anesthetic toxicity?
    a) Mild headache
    b) Numbness in limbs
    c) Seizures
    d) Low blood pressureAnswer: c) Seizures
37. Which type of spinal needle is often used to minimize the risk of post-dural puncture headache?
    a) Cutting needle
    b) Pencil-point needle
    c) Blunt needle
    d) Spinal catheterAnswer: b) Pencil-point needle
38. How is the level of spinal anesthesia typically assessed during surgery?
    a) By observing the patient’s facial expressions
    b) By testing sensory levels with pinprick or cold
    c) By monitoring respiratory rate
    d) By measuring heart rate variabilityAnswer: b) By testing sensory levels with pinprick or cold
39. Which complication of spinal anesthesia is related to improper needle placement?
    a) Epidural hematoma
    b) Hypotension
    c) Spinal cord injury
    d) Dural puncture headacheAnswer: c) Spinal cord injury
40. What should be done if a patient shows signs of inadequate spinal anesthesia?
    a) Increase the dose of anesthetic
    b) Discontinue the anesthesia
    c) Perform a local nerve block
    d) Administer intravenous fluidsAnswer: a) Increase the dose of anesthetic
41. What is the typical dose range for bupivacaine used in spinal anesthesia?
    a) 5-10 mg
    b) 10-20 mg
    c) 20-30 mg
    d) 30-50 mgAnswer: b) 10-20 mg
42. Which type of anesthesia is preferred for a patient with pre-existing respiratory conditions undergoing lower abdominal surgery?
    a) General anesthesia
    b) Epidural anesthesia
    c) Spinal anesthesia
    d) Local anesthesiaAnswer: c) Spinal anesthesia
43. What is a typical sign of successful spinal anesthesia?
    a) Loss of consciousness
    b) Complete motor blockade
    c) Absence of pain below the level of injection
    d) Increased heart rateAnswer: c) Absence of pain below the level of injection
44. Which of the following measures can help reduce the incidence of spinal headache?
    a) Use of a larger gauge needle
    b) Proper needle placement and technique
    c) Administration of higher doses of local anesthetic
    d) Prolonged bed restAnswer: b) Proper needle placement and technique
45. What is the main advantage of using a single-shot spinal block over a continuous spinal catheter?
    a) Longer duration of anesthesia
    b) Higher risk of hypotension
    c) Simplicity and ease of administration
    d) Reduced risk of infectionAnswer: c) Simplicity and ease of administration
46. Which complication is most likely to occur if the spinal needle is placed too far into the subarachnoid space?
    a) Infection
    b) Spinal cord injury
    c) Hypotension
    d) Severe headacheAnswer: b) Spinal cord injury
47. What is the most appropriate action if a patient experiences severe hypotension after spinal anesthesia?
    a) Administer vasoconstrictors
    b) Increase the anesthetic dose
    c) Perform an emergency cesarean section
    d) Change the patient’s positionAnswer: a) Administer vasoconstrictors
48. Which of the following local anesthetics is associated with a lower risk of cardiac toxicity?
    a) Lidocaine
    b) Bupivacaine
    c) Ropivacaine
    d) MepivacaineAnswer: c) Ropivacaine
49. What is the primary role of the dural sac in spinal anesthesia?
    a) To protect the spinal cord
    b) To provide a pathway for the anesthetic
    c) To stabilize the needle
    d) To support the vertebral columnAnswer: a) To protect the spinal cord
50. What is a common practice to prevent complications during spinal anesthesia?
    a) Immediate patient ambulation
    b) Adequate hydration before the procedure
    c) Use of sedation
    d) Continuous monitoring of vital signsAnswer: d) Continuous monitoring of vital signs

Topic-wise Anesthesia MCQs

1. Anesthesiology MCQs
2. Anesthesia Basics:
   • Levels of sedation and anesthesia MCQs
   • Stages of anesthesia MCQs
3. Anesthesia Agents MCQs:
   • Inhaled anesthetics MCQs
   • Intravenous anesthetics MCQs
   • Neuromuscular blocking agents MCQs
   • Local anesthetics MCQs
4. Airway Management:
   • Endotracheal intubation MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Supraglottic airway devices MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Video laryngoscopy MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Difficult airway management MCQs – Anesthesia
5. Anesthesia Monitoring MCQs – Anesthesia:
   • Hemodynamic monitoring MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Pulse oximetry MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Capnography MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Temperature monitoring MCQs – Anesthesia
6. Regional Anesthesia MCQs :
   • Epidural anesthesia MCQs
   • Spinal anesthesia MCQs
   • Peripheral nerve blocks MCQs
7. Patient Assessment and Optimization:
   • Pre-operative assessment MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Patient history and physical examination MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Risk assessment and optimization MCQs – Anesthesia
8. Anesthesia Delivery Systems MCQs:
   • Inhalation anesthesia machines MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Intravenous anesthesia techniques MCQs – Anesthesia
9. Pediatric Anesthesia MCQs :
   • Considerations for anesthesia in pediatric patients MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Pediatric airway management MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Pediatric drug dosages MCQs – Anesthesia
10. Obstetric Anesthesia MCQs – Anesthesia:
    • Anesthesia for labor and delivery MCQs
    • Epidural analgesia in obstetrics MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Anesthetic considerations for cesarean section
11. Anesthesia Complications and Emergencies MCQs:
    • Malignant hyperthermia MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Anaphylaxis MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Cardiac arrest during anesthesia MCQs – Anesthesia
12. Post-Anesthesia Care MCQs:
    • Recovery room management MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Pain management strategies MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Post-operative complications related to anesthesia MCQs
13. Geriatric Anesthesia:
    • Considerations for anesthesia in elderly patients MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Geriatric pharmacology MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Management of common comorbidities MCQs – Anesthesia
14. Ethics and Professionalism in Anesthesia MCQs:
    • Informed consent MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Patient autonomy MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Professional conduct and communication MCQs – Anesthesia
15. Simulation and Skills Training MCQs :
    • Hands-on training in airway management and procedures MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Simulation exercises for crisis management MCQs – Anesthesia