Orthopedics MCQs Questions Answers Test PDF

Orthopedics MCQs Questions Answers Test PDF

Orthopedics MCQs Questions Answers Test PDF is the set of important Questions answers of orthopedics. Let’s begin with Set 1.

SET 1: Specialization of  Orthopedics MCQs

1. On an x-ray, onion peel appearance is seen in?
A. osteoclastoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Ewing’s sarcoma
D. osteochondroma
E. None of These

2. In which carcinoma, bony metastasis is not seen.
A. Bronchus
B. Pelvis
C. Breast
D. Testis
E. None of These

3. According to new hypothesis, Ewings Sarcoma arises from _______.
A. medullary cavity
B. cortex
C. Diaphysis
D. Epiphysis
E. None of These

4. Which of these is a marker for bone formation?
A. serum nucleotidase
B. urinary calcium
C. osteocalcin
D. tartrate-resistant acid phosphate
E. None of These

5. On an x-ray, appearance of sunray?

A. osteoclastoma
B. Ewing’s sarcoma
C. osteomyelitis
D. osteosarcoma
E. None of These

6. Which of these structures are fixed first? In the case of reimplantation.
A. Bone
B. Nerve
C. Vein
D. Artery
E. None of These

7. Which of the following agents doesn’t decrease bone resorption in osteoporosis?
A. Strontium ranelate
B. Risedronate
C. Teriparatide
D. Raloxifene
E. None of These

8. Blood supply to neck and head of the femur is mainly from _______.
A. Lateral circumflex femoral artery
B. Superficial epigastric artery
C. Artery of ligamentum teres
D. Medial circumflex femoral artery
E. None of These

9. The characteristic feature of Blount’s disease is ________.
A. Genu varum
B. Genu valgum
C. Coxa valga
D. Coxa vara
E. None of These

10. For _______, Agnes Hunt traction is used.
A. Trochanteric fracture
B. Flexion deformity of the hip
C. Low backache
D. Fracture shaft of femur in adults
E. None of These

SET 2: Orthopedics MCQs for MBBS Doctors

11. Which of these is the most reliable method for detecting bone metastasis?
A. CT scan
B. SPECT
C. Radiography
D. MRI
E. None of These

12. _______ is not a benign tumor.
A. Chordoma
B. Chondroma
C. Enchondroma
D. Osteochondroma
E. None of These

13. The starting point of Tuberculosis of the spine is _______.
A. nucleolus pulposus
B. vertebral body
C. paravertebral joints
D. annulus fibrosis
E. None of These

14. _______ is the commonest site of skeletal tuberculosis.
A. Radius
B. Tibia
C. Vertebrae
D. Humerus
E. None of These

15. Blount’s disease?
A. tibia vara
B. genu valgus
C. genu recurvatum
D. flat foot
E. None of These

16. Triad of Klippel Feil syndrome consists of all these except _______.
A. Short neck
B. Limited neck movements
C. Low hairline
D. Elevated scapula
E. None of These

17. Characteristic of the brown tumor is _____.
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hypoparathyroidism
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Hypopituitarism
E. None of These

18. Which of these is tested by using the “Liftoff test”?
A. Subscapularis
B. Teres Minor
C. Infraspinatus
D. Supraspinatus
E. None of These

19. All are true regarding synovial sarcoma except?
A. Usually seen in individuals less than 50 years of age
B. Originates from the synovial lining
C. More common at extra-articular sites
D. Knee and foot are commonly involved
E. None of These

20. _________ is used to treat Clavicular fracture.
A. Figure of eight bandage
B. Open reduction and internal fixation
C. Fixation with plate and screw
D. Skeletal traction
E. None of These

21. ________ is Bunion.
A. base of 1st metatarsal
B. head of the first metatarsal
C. adventitious bursitis lateral to the first metatarsal
D. Exostosis
E. None of These

22. Distal interphalangeal is a joint that is not involved in?
A. neuropathic arthropathy
B. psoriatic arthritis
C. multicentric histiocytosis
D. rheumatoid arthritis
E. None of These

23. _______ joint is involved in Syme’s amputation.
A. Midtarsal
B. Tarsometatarsal
C. Ankle
D. All of the above
E. None of These

24. ______ is most often involved in march fracture.
A. Fibula
B. 1st metatarsal
C. 3rd metatarsal
D. 2nd metatarsal
E. Both C and D
F. None of These

25. The most common site of osteogenic sarcoma?
A. femur lower end
B. femur upper end
C. Tibia lower end
D. Tibia upper end
E. None of These

26. Which of the following is a true statement about sequestrum and involucrum?
A. Sequestrum is a sheath of new bone formation
B. Involucrum is a piece of dead bone
C. Involucrum is surrounded by sequestrum
D. Sequestrum is surrounded by an involucrum
E. None of These

27. ______ described, Bone remodeling in response to stress.
A. Nicolas Andry
B. Julius Wolff
C. William Osler
D. Harvey Cushing
E. None of These

28. Gallow’s traction is used for?
A. Fracture humerus
B. Fracture tibia
C. Fracture neck of the femur
D. Fracture shaft of the femur
E. None of These

29. ________ is affected by Heberden’s Arthropathy.
A. Distal interphalangeal joints
B. Lumbar spine
C. Sacroiliac joints
D. Symmetrically large joints
E. None of These

30. The patient doesn’t have ______clinical features in Klippel-Feil syndrome.
A. Bilateral Neck webbing
B. Low hairline
C. Gross limitations of neck movements
D. Bilateral shortness of sternomastoid muscles
E. None of These

SET 3: Orthopedics MCQs for admissions and jobs

31. The radiological feature of ________ is soap bubble appearance.
A. osteoid osteoma
B. chordoma
C. osteosarcoma
D. osteoclastoma or GCT
E. None of These

32. Chondroblastomas most usually occurs in ________.
A. Metaphysis
B. Diaphysis
C. Epiphysis
D. medullary cavity
E. None of These

33. In _______, Bouchard’s nodes are seen.
A. distal IP joints
B. proximal IP joints
C. knee joints
D. sternoclavicular joints
E. None of These

34. Positivity of HLA B 27 in ankylosing spondylitis is?
A. 100 %
B. 78 %
C. 10 %
D. 96 %
E. None of These

35. In which of the following Osteoarthritis is not involved?
A. distal interphalangeal joints
B. knee joint
C. hip joint
D. shoulder joint
E. metacarpophalangeal joint of the thumb
F. None of These

36. Which of the following is not true about the fracture of the atlas vertebrae?
A. CT scans should be done for diagnosis
B. Atlantooccipital fusion may sometimes be needed
C. Quadriplegia is seen in 80% of cases
D. Jefferson fracture is the most common type
E. None of These

37. Which of the following is not involved in pelvic fracture?
A. Ischial tuberosities
B. Pubic rami
C. Acetabulum
D. Alae of ileum
E. None of These

38. Which of the following method cannot be used to treat Subtrochanteric fractures of femur?
A. Condylar blade plate
B. Skeletal traction on Thomas splint
C. Smith Patersen Nail
D. Ender’s nail
E. None of These

39. Which of these malignant tumors is radioresistant?
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Ewing’s sarcoma
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Retinoblastoma
E. None of These

40. Which of the following is not true about exostosis?
A. Malignant transformation may occur
B. It occurs at the growing end of the bone
C. It is covered by a cartilaginous cap
D. Growth continues after skeletal maturity
E. None of These

SET 4: Orthopedics MCQs – American Board of Physician Specialties

41. Metabolic bone disease is caused by excess intake of which vitamin?
A. vit B
B. vit A
C. vit D
D. vit E
E. vit C
F. Both B&C
G. None of These

42. Osteoporosis is related with _______.
A. late childbirth
B. family history present
C. reduced weight for height
D. Smoking
E. None of These

43. Due to injury of _______ nerve, Trendelenburg test is positive.
A. obturator nerve
B. superior gluteal nerve
C. pudendal nerve
D. inferior gluteal nerve
E. None of These

44. Sever’s disease refers to, which of the following?
A. Talus
B. Radius
C. Calcaneum
D. Capitulum
E. None of These

45. ________ is Lis franc dislocation.
A. lunate dislocation
B. tarsometatarsal dislocation
C. posterior dislocation of the elbow
D. scaphoid dislocation
E. None of These

46. Pathological changes in caissons disease is due to?
A. O2
B. N2
C. CO
D. CO2
E. None of These

47. Treatment of Intracapsular fracture neck of femur in adult
A. Excision of the head of the femur
B. Skeletal traction
C. Closed reduction and internal fixation
D. POP Spica
E. None of These

48. Which of these conditions is least likely to present as an eccentric osteolytic lesion?
A. Giant cell tumor
B. Simple bone cyst
C. Aneurysmal bone cyst
D. Fibrous cortical defect
E. None of These

49. In _______, Rugger Jersey Spine is seen.
A. Renal osteodystrophy
B. Marfan’s syndrome
C. Achondroplasia
D. Fluorosis
E. None of These

50. Which of the following is not a cause of a sudden increase in pain in osteochondroma?
A. Fracture
B. Sarcomatous change
C. Degenerative changes
D. Bursitis
E. None of These