1. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding enzyme?
A. All enzymes are fibrous proteins
B. They without their cofactor are called apoenzyme
C. Some of them consist solely of protein, with no non-protein part
D. They catalyze a chemical reaction without being utilized
2. ________ coined the term CELL:
A. Robert Hook
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Theodor Schwann and Schleiden
D. Both A & B
3. _________ has the enzymes controlling respiration:
A. Chloroplast
B. Nucleus
C. Ribosome
D. Mitochondria
4. Who hypothesized that new cells are formed from the previously existing living cell?
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Theodor Schwann and Schleiden
C. Rudolph Virchow
D. None of the above
5. What is an activated enzyme consisting of a polypeptide and a cofactor called?
A. Activated enzyme
B. Apoenzyme
C. Holoenzyme
D. Both A & C
6. What is the resolution power of a compound microscope?
A. 24 um
B. 24 A
C. 2.0 um
D. 2-4 A
7. _____________ forms the raw material for coenzymes:
A. Vitamins
B. Proteins
C. Metals
D. Carbohydrates
8. Which of the following is the first layer of the cell wall formed?
A. Secondary wall
B. Primary wall
C. Middle lamella
D. None of these
9. The activation energy of a chemical reaction ____________ by enzymes:
A. Doesn’t effect
B. Increases or decreases depending upon individual enzyme
C. Increases
D. Decreases
10. ___________ has cellulose as the major component:
A. Middle lamella
B. Primary wall
C. Secondary wall
D. None of the above
11. __________ is a cofactor made of inorganic ion which is detachable:
A. Activator
B. Prosthetic group
C. Coenzyme
D. None of the above
12. ___________ is the factory of ribosomal synthesis:
A. Nucleus
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Nucleolus
D. Cytoplasm
13. ______________ is a three-dimensional cavity bearing a specific charge by which the enzyme reacts with its substrate:
A. Catalytic site
B. Allosteric site
C. Active site
D. Binding site
14. What are autophagosomes?
A. Lysosomes which help in extracellular digestion
B. Those lysosomes which eat parts of their own cells to generate energy
C. Those lysosomes which eat old and worn out cellular organelles
D. Both B & C
15. Which of the following step causes the activation of the catalytic site of an enzyme?
A. Change in the charge of the active site
B. Formation of the enzyme-substrate complex
C. Change in temperature
D. Change in pH of the surroundings
16. What is the percentage of proteins in the cell membrane?
A. 60-80%
B. 80-100%
C. 100-120%
D. 120-140%
17. Who proposed Lock and Key model?
A. Robin Williams
B. Rudolph Virchow
C. Emil Fischer
D. Koshland
18. Centrioles are composed of ______ triplets of microtubules:
A. 12
B. 2
C. 6
D. 9
19. Which of the following is incorrect about Lock and Key model?
A. The active site does not change before, during or even after the reaction
B. It explains the mechanism of every chemical reaction
C. A specific enzyme can transform only a specific substrate
D. The active site of an enzyme is a non-flexible structure
20. Ribosomes + mRNA:
A. Polysome
B. Polysome
C. both a and b
D. None of the above
21. Which statement is incorrect in this respect: The rate of a reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of an enzyme:
A. If the concentration is doubled the rate will become two fold
B. Increase in enzyme molecule increases the available active sites
C. This relation is for an unlimited time period with unlimited enzyme concentration
D. None of the above
22. The maturing face in Golgi apparatus is:
A. Spherical
B. Biconcave
C. Convex
D. Concave
23. If the concentration of the enzyme is kept constant, and the amount of substrate is increased, a point is reached where an increase in substrate’s concentration doesn’t affect the reaction rate because of:
A. All the active sites on enzyme molecule are occupied
B. Enzymes get denaturated at higher substrate conc
C. The rate of reaction is indirectly proportional to substrate concentration at this point
D. None of the above
24. Chlorophyll is a/an __________ molecule:
A. Anionic
B. Organic
C. Inorganic
D. Cationic
25. If more substrate to the already occurring enzymatic reaction is added, more enzyme activity is seen because:
A. There is probably more product present than there is either substrate or enzyme
B. The enzyme-substrate complex is probably failing to form during the reaction
C. There is probably more substrate present than there is the enzyme
D. There is probably more enzyme available than there is a substrate
26. Where are ribosomes assembled?
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Nucleolus
D. Nucleus
27. If more substrate to already occurring enzymatic reaction is added, and there is no effect on the rate of the reaction, what is the form given to this situation?
A. Composition
B. Inhibition
C. Saturation
D. Denaturation
28. __________ is not present in mitochondria:
A. Ribosomes
B. Thylakoids
C. Enzymes
D. Co-enzymes
29. The active site of an enzyme:
A. Determined by the structure and the specificity of the enzyme
B. They are non-specific in their action
C. Never changes
D. Forms no chemical bond with the substrate
30. Chlorophyll molecule
contains _______ as central metal ion:
A. Zn2+
B. Cu+2
C. Fe2+
D. Mg2+
31. Excessive increase in temperature of the medium causes the enzyme molecule to:
A. Denatured
B. Activate
C. Unaffected
D. None of the above
32. ___________ impart a red colour to Rose petals:
A. Chromoplast
B. Leukoplast
C. Chloroplast
D. Chlorophyll
33. The extreme change in pH leads to:
A. Denaturation of the enzyme
B. Increase in the reaction rate
C. Change in ionization of amino acids at the active site of the enzyme
D. Change in the ionization of the substrate
34. In an RBC, number of nuclear pores are:
A. 20,000
B. 1000
C. 500
D. 3-4
35. In a human body, optimal temperature of enzymes present are:
A. 30 degree-Celcius
B. 37 degree-Celcius
C. 40 degree-Celcius
D. 45 degree-Celcius
36. Solanum tuberosum is the scientific name of __________:
A. Potato
B. Tomato
C. Onion
D. Amaltas
37. A chemical substance which can react (in place of the substrate) with the enzyme but is not transformed into product/s and thus blocks the active site temporarily or permanently is called:
A. Inhibitor
B. Cofactor
C. Co-enzyme
D. Blocker
38. Allium cepa is the scientific name of __________:
A. Potato
B. Tomato
C. Onion
D. Amaltas
39. Inhibitors which block the enzyme by forming a weak bond are known as:
A. Irreversible inhibitors
B. Competitive inhibitors
C. Non-competitive inhibitors
D. Both B & C
40. Who proposed five kingdom classification?
A. Robert Whittaker
B. Lynn Margulis and Karlene Schwartz
C. Carlos Linnaeus
D. E-Chatton
41. A substance which binds at the active site of the enzyme but doesn’t result in the formation of the products is called:
A. Competitive inhibitor
B. Non-competitive inhibitor
C. Reversible inhibitor
D. Irreversible inhibitor
42. From which kingdom Amoeba belongs to?
A. Monera
B. Protista
C. Prokaryotae
D. Plantae
43. The structure of an enzyme is altered by ___________:
A. Competitive inhibitor
B. Reversible inhibitor
C. Irreversible inhibitor
D. Non-competitive inhibitor
44. Kingdom Monera is also known as:
A. Archae
B. Protoctista
C. Prokaryotae
D. None of the above
45. Malonic acid is an example of ___________:
A. Competitive inhibitor
B. Reversible inhibitor
C. Irreversible inhibitor
D. Non-competitive inhibitor
46. RNA or DNA of viruses is enclosed in which coat?
A. Lipid
B. DNA
C. Protein
D. Carbohydrate
47. If enzyme concentration is low than the substrate, pH and temperature values are equal to requirement then which of the following will increase the rate of reaction?
A. Increase in pH
B. Increase in temperature
C. Increase in concentration of enzyme
D. Increase in concentration of substrate
48. Who discovered the Vaccine?
A. Ivanowski
B. Stanely
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Edward Jenner
49. ___________ is not present in all the bacteria:
A. Ribosomes
B. Capsule
C. Cell membrane
D. Chromatin bodies
50. What is the size of a smallest virus?
A. 4mm
B. 8mm
C. 16mm
D. 20mm
51. How many postulates do Germ theory of disease have?
A. 4
B. 10
C. 15
D. 16
52: Proteins subunits of the capsid is called the capsomeres, is a characteristic of each virus. Their number in Herpes virus is:
A. 162
B. 178
C. 184
D. 190
53. The first bacterium isolated was _________:
A. Vibrio
B. Spirochete
C. Coccus
D. Bacillus
54. What is the size of poxvirus?
A. 250 nm
B. 260 nm
C. 270 nm
D. 275 nm
55. ___________ bacteria are rigid, spiral and thick:
A. Spirochete
B. Coccus
C. Vibrio
D. Spirillum
56. How many times the virus are smaller than bacteria?
A. 10-100 times
B. 10-1000 times
C. 100-1000 times
D. 1000-10000 times
57. What is a group of 8 cocci called?
A. Tetrad
B. Sarcina
C. Diplococci
D. Octococci
58. What is a virion?
A. Viral lysozyme
B. Viral gene
C. Virus
D. Viral protein
59. _________ bacteria do not have flagella commonly:
A. Streptobacilli
B. Vibrio
C. Cocci
D. Bacilli
60. Temperate phage may exist as ________:
A. Viron
B. Retrovirus
C. Prophage
D. Capsid
61. From where flagella originate?
A. Capsule
B. Basal body
C. Cell membrane
D. Cell wall
62. ___________ is an RNA virus:
A. HBV
B. Pox-virus
C. Influenza virus
D. Herpes simplex
63. Cell wall is absent in ___________:
A. Mycobacterium
B. Mycoplasma
C. Cocci
D. Bacilli
64. Which is the smallest known virus?
A. Polio virus
B. Pox virus
C. Hepatitis virus
D. Retrovirus
65. Gram-positive bacteria appear:
A. Pink
B. Blue
C. Purple
D. Yellow
66. Hepatitis A mode of transmission is:
A. Sexual contact
B. Serum
C. Faeco-oral
D. None of the above
67. __________ is the common waste material in bacteria:
A. Ammonia
B. Urea
C. Glycogen
D. Lactic acid
68. For which no preventive vaccine is available?
A. HCV
B. HEV
C. HAV
D. HBV
69. E. Coli is an example of __________:
A. Facultative bacteria
B. Microaerophilic
C. Aerobic bacteria
D. Anaerobic bacteria
70. How many phyla do Kingdom Protista include?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 27
D. 28
71. Spirochete is an example of ___________:
A. Facultative bacteria
B. Microaerophilic
C. Aerobic bacteria
D. Anaerobic bacteria
72. Which has glassy shells?
A. Forams
B. Radiolarians
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
73. The vaccine against anthrax was developed by:
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Alexander Fleming
C. Edward Jenner
D. None of the above
74. Mostly photosynthesis on earth is carried by:
A. Angiosperms
B. Algae
C. Kelps
D. Gymnosperms
75. Cyanobacteria is reproduced by:
A. Meiosis
B. Conjugation
C. Binary fission
D. Mitosis
76. The second name of brown algae is:
A. Pyrrophyta
B. Chrysoprase
C. Phaeophyta
D. Rhodophyta
77. What is incorrect about plants?
A. Non-motile organisms
B. Are heterotrophs
C. All are eukaryotes
D. They are multicellular
78. Another name of golden algae is:
A. Pyrrophyta
B. Rhodophyta
C. Chrysophyta
D. Phaeophyta
79. What is the reason Bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant world?
A. Amphibians have a close relation with bryophytes in their habitat
B. Bryophytes like amphibian ancestors are one of the most primitive organisms in this world
C. Bryophytes like amphibian live in damp shady places and close to the water body
D. None of the above
80. Most of the dinoflagellates are ___________:
A. Zooflagellates
B. Unicellular
C. Multicellular
D. All of these
81: In which sub-class Hornworts are included?
A. Hepaticopsida
B. Psilopsida
C. Anthoceropsida
D. Bryopsido
82. The main energy stones in chlorophytes are:
A. Glycogen
B. Cellulose
C. Starch
D. None of the above
83. Horsetails are included in ____________ class:
A. Psilopsida
B. Pteropsida
C. Sphenopeida
D. Lycopsida
84. Spores produced by slime molds are _________:
A. Triploid
B. Haploid
C. Diploid
D. None of the above
85. Archegonia and Antheridia are born on ____________ in bryophytes:
A. Gametophyte
B. Sporophyte
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
86. Aschelminthes is also called:
A. Nematodes
B. Protoctist ancestors
C. Protozoans
D. Eumatazoa
87. Where does fertilization take place in bryophytes?
A. Water
B. Ovule
C. Antheridia
D. Archegonia
88. Which is not included in Protostomes?
A. Annelids
B. Molluscs
C. Arthropods
D. Hemichordates
89. Which is incorrect about alternation of generation in bryophytes?
A. Both the gametophyte and sporophytes are haploid generations, thus can produce haploids gametes to continue the diploid number on fertilization
B. Spore formation occurs through meiosis
C. It involves alternation of morphologically different generations
D. Their gametophyte is independent while sporophyte depends upon gametophyte for nutrition
90. Which is not a coelomate?
A. Hemichordates
B. Ascheldiminthes
C. Deuterostomes
D. Proteosomes
91. Antherozoids, the male gamete in bryophytes, are attracted to Archegonium i.e., female sex organ by:
A. Geotropic phenomenon
B. Chemotropic movement
C. Phototactic phenomenon
D. Chemotactic phenomenon
92. The name animal is derived from the word __________:
A. Aname
B. Anima
C. Anemia
D. None of the above
93. __________ bryophytes are the simplest one:
A. Anthocerus
B. Polytrichum
C. Porella
D. Funaria
94. Which is not the characteristic of Kingdom Animalia?
A. All animals develop from the dissimilar gametes i.e. large sperm and small egg
B. It is the largest kingdom
C. All animals are ingestive heterotrophs
D. All animals are eukaryotes
95. In liverworts, the zygote formed is:
A. Multinucleate
B. Unicellular
C. Multicellular
D. None of the above
96. The radial symmetry is found in the animals of __________:
A. Cnidaria
B. Protozoa
C. Porifera
D. All of these
97. Sporophyte is _________:
A. Diploid
B. Polyploidy
C. Monoploid
D. Haploid
98. All the animals of the grade radiata are:
A. Unicellular
B. Diploblastic
C. Triploblastic
D. All of these
99. Mosses are included in which sub-division?
A. Bryopsida
B. Lycopsida
C. Anthoceropsida
D. Hepaticopsida
100. Both bilateral symmetry and radial is found in the phylum ______________:
A. Echinodermata
B. Protozoa
C. Porifera
D. None of the above
