Auditing MCQs Past PapersBy: Prof. Dr. Fazal Rehman | Last updated: May 21, 2025 99 Score: 0 Attempted: 0/99 Subscribe 1. : The numerator of the rate of return on total assets ratio is equal to: (A) Net Income (B) Income before taxes (C) Income before interest expense (D) Net income minus preferred dividends 2. : Cheque is always crossed by: (A) Drawer (B) Drawee (C) Holder (D) None of these 3. : An agreement without consideration is: (A) Void (B) Valid (C) Voidable (D) Illegal 4. : Dishonored cheque means: (A) Cheque cashed by bank (B) Cheque presented to the bank and refused for the payment (C) A cheque the amount has not been filled (D) A cheque which is not signed 5. : Books of original entry are called: (A) Ledger (B) Worksheets (C) Journal (D) None of these 6. : The World Bank has been derived from? (A) Bank (B) Bancus (C) Banco (D) None of these 7. : Which account is suitable for business community? (A) Saving account (B) Current account (C) Profit and loss account (D) Deposit account 8. : The objective of central bank is: (A) Welfare of public (B) To earn profit (C) Economic prosperity & development (D) Receiving deposits 9. : The State Bank of Pakistan was inaugurated by: (A) Liaqat Ali Khan (B) Abdul Rub Nishter (C) Allama Iqbal (D) Quaid-e-Azam 10. : Commercial Banks following: creates the (A) Metallic Money (B) Credit (C) Paper (D) All of above 11. : A cash sale of merchandise should be recorded in the: (A) Sales journal (B) General ledger (C) Cash receipts journal (D) Cash payments journal 12. : A trader with a bank account wants to make monthly payments for a trade journal. What is the most suitable payment method? (A) Bank Draft (B) Bank Notes (C) Cable Transfer (D) Standing Order 13. : Which service is not available to bank customers through ATMs? (A) Checking the balance of their accounts (B) Organizing personal loans (C) Requesting printed statements from the bank (D) Withdrawing cash 14. : Which sources of finance are most suitable for ABC Corporation, a large manufacturer facing cash flow problems? (A) Higher purchase (B) Overdraft (C) Shares (D) Trade Credit 15. : Using credit means that the customer: (A) Always pays extra for the goods (B) Gets goods repaired for nothing (C) Obtain discounts on goods (D) Uses the goods but pays later 16. : Which form of credit ensures a laptop becomes the customer’s property? (A) Credit card (B) Credit Transfer (C) Higher Purchase (D) Leasing 17. : What services can customers receive through telephone banking? (A) Buying and selling shares (B) Confirming account balances (C) Organizing insurance cover (D) Safeguarding legal documents 18. : What is a current account at a commercial bank? (A) An account for daily transactions (B) An account requiring a passbook (C) An account used for saving (D) An account which cannot be overdrawn 19. : What is the meaning of the term “limited liability”? (A) Shares are issued only to certain total value (B) Shareholders are paid back only a certain percentage of their investment (C) Shareholders can lose only the value of their investment (D) Shareholders can buy only a certain sum of share capital 20. : A company raises finance by issuing debentures. The debenture holders are entitled to: (A) Interest after the shareholders have been paid (B) One vote per share (C) Repayment before shareholders if the company goes into liquidation (D) Variable dividend 21. : A contract comprises of: (A) Offer + Acceptance (B) Agreement + Consideration (C) Offer + Acceptance + Agreement (D) Agreement + Enforceability 22. : An agreement is void ab initio is called: (A) Void contract (B) Void Agreement (C) Voidable contract (D) Illegal agreement 23. : Which of the following is an offer? (A) An invitation to offer an advertisement (B) Both (a) & (b) (C) (d) None of these (D) None of these 24. : A specific offer can be accepted by: (A) Any friend of the offeror (B) Coworker (C) The person to whom the offer is made (D) Anyone of the public made 25. : What is the purpose of a bank slip? (A) To credit an overseas bank account (B) To pay a creditor who does not have a bank account (C) To pay money into a bank account (D) To withdraw money from a current account 26. : Consideration must move from: (A) Promisor (B) Promisee (C) Third party (D) Promisee or any other person 27. : Incapacity to contract may be due to the absence of legal formalities: (A) Majority (B) Lack of consideration (C) Minority (D) None of these 28. : For preparing balance sheets, prepaid expenses are shown as part of: (A) Liability (B) Equities (C) Assets (D) None of these 29. : Quantum meruit means: (A) As much as is earned (B) As much as is paid (C) A non-gratuitous act (D) None of these 30. : Each party to a contract is both promisor and promisee in the case of: (A) Present consideration (B) Valid contract (C) Reciprocal promises (D) Part of consideration 31. : Income Tax Ordinance 2001 was promulgated on: (A) 1st July 2001 (B) 13th September 2001 (C) 1st January 2001 (D) 1st July 2002 32. : Normal tax year starts from: (A) 1st September each year (B) 1st July each year (C) 1st January each year (D) 1st March each year 33. : Income from property is taxable under: (A) NTR (B) FTR (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these 34. : A person shall be resident if he spends the following days in Pakistan: (A) 182 days (B) 180 days (C) 181 days (D) 183 days 35. : Unpaid and oral expenses are called: (A) Prepaid expenses (B) Accrued expenses (C) Additional expenses (D) None of these 36. : The rates of tax are specified in: (A) 1st Schedule (B) 3rd Schedule (C) 5th Schedule (D) 7th Schedule 37. : Employer’s contribution in case of Government well-prepared fund is: (A) Taxable (B) Exempt (C) No treatment (D) Exempt up to 10% of basic salary 38. : Income Tax Appellate Tribunal is appointed by the: (A) Federal Board of Revenue (B) Federal Government (C) Supreme Court of Pakistan (D) Income Tax Ordinance 2001 39. : There can be no loss under the head: (A) Income from salary (B) Income from business (C) Income from other sources (D) None of the above 40. : Revenues can be defined as: (A) Economic resources owned by the entity that are expected to provide future benefits (B) Inflows of assets in exchange for goods sold or services rendered by the entity (C) Any increase in owner equity (D) An increase in cash 41. : The objectivity code requires that: (A) Business transactions must be consistent with the objectives of the entity (B) Accounting principles must meet the objectives of the securities commission and exchange (C) Amounts recorded in the financial statement must be based on verifiable evidence independently (D) FASH must be fair and unbiased in its deliberation over new accounting standards 42. : A liability in the amount of Rs. 500 is paid in cash, which of the following is true: (A) An asset is increased and a liability is decreased (B) An asset is increased and a liability is increased (C) An asset is decreased and a liability is decreased (D) A liability is decreased and owner’s equity is increased 43. : An owner withdraws Rs. 300 each from the business. Which of the following is true? (A) An asset is decreased and owner equity is decreased (B) An asset is decreased and owner equity is increased (C) An asset is increased and a liability is decreased (D) There is no effect on any asset, liability, or owner’s equity 44. : An expense is experienced that will be paid for the next month. Which of the following is true? (A) An asset is decreased and owner’s equity is decreased (B) An asset is increased and a liability is increased (C) A liability is increased and owner equity increased (D) A liability is increased and owner’s equity is decreased 45. : A customer is billed for services rendered. Which of the following is true? (A) An asset is increasing, and a liability is decreased (B) An asset is increased, and owner’s equity is increased (C) One asset is increased, and another asset is decreased (D) There is no effect on any liability or owner’s equity 46. : The amount due from a customer who was billed last month is collected. Which of the following is true? (A) An asset is decreased, and owner’s equity is decreased (B) An asset is increased, and owner’s equity is increased (C) One asset is increased, another asset is decreased (D) An asset is increased, liability is increased 47. : Which one of the following accounts will most likely be included in accrual-type adjusting entries? (A) Insurance expense (B) Prepaid rent (C) Interest expense (D) Unearned revenue 48. : The revenue recognition principle states that: (A) Revenue should be recorded when earned (B) Revenue should be recorded when the cash is collected (C) Expenses should be recorded in the same period as the associated revenue (D) Revenue should be listed on the income statement first 49. : What is the proper year-end adjusting entry for a 1-year Rs. 720 insurance policy purchased on June 1 and debited to prepaid insurance? (A) A debit to insurance expense for Rs. 300 (B) A credit to insurance expense for Rs. 420 (C) A credit to prepaid insurance for Rs. 720 (D) The credit to prepaid insurance for Rs. 420 50. : A company collected a year’s rent in advance on Oct. Which of the following is true? (A) A debit to unearned revenue for Rs. 900 (B) A debit to unearned revenue for Rs. 300 (C) A credit to unearned revenue for Rs. 900 (D) A debit to revenue earned for Rs. 900 51. : Which of the following items is a current asset? (A) Unearned Revenue (B) Real estate held for resale (C) Temporary investments (D) Patents 52. : When interest earned but not yet collected is accrued at year-end, the proper adjusting entry includes a: (A) Debit to interest receivable (B) Debit to cash (C) Credit to interest expense (D) Credit to interest payable 53. : The operating cycle is: (A) The average length of time between the purchase of merchandise inventory and the realization of cash from the sale of the inventory (B) The length of time between the preparation of financial statements (C) The estimate length of time that the entity will remain in business (D) The average length of time between the sale of merchandise inventory and the replacement of inventory 54. : Which one of the following accounts would usually have a credit balance? (A) Cash (B) Account payable (C) Equipment (D) Salaries Expense 55. : Which one of the following accounts would usually have a debit balance? (A) Notes payable (B) Jamal, capital (C) Kamal, withdraws (D) Service’s fees earned 56. : The entire amount Rs.1,200 was credited to unearned revenue. The proper adjusting entry at the Dec 31 year-end would include: (A) Prove that there were no errors made in recording the business transaction in the general journal (B) Prove that there were no errors made in posting from the general journal to the general ledger (C) Prove that each account balance is correct (D) Summarize the account balances as an aid in the preparation of the financial statements 57. : Which of the following does not appear on a worksheet? (A) The unadjusted trial balance (B) Adjusting entries (C) Closing entries (D) The withdrawals account 58. : Which of the following indicates that a company earned a net income for the period? (A) Adjusting entries were not made (B) The sum of the debits exceeds the sum of the credits in the income statement columns of the worksheet (C) The sum of the credits exceeded the sum of the debits in the income statement columns of the worksheet (D) The withdrawals account had a debit balance 59. : Balance sheet accounts: (A) Are called real accounts (B) Represent amounts accumulated during a specific period of time (C) Have zero balances after the closing process is complete (D) Are called nominal accounts 60. : It is useful to make reversing entries for: (A) Adjusting entries recording depreciation expense (B) Adjusting entries relating to accruals (C) Adjusting entries related to deferrals that were recorded initially in a liability account (D) All of the above 61. : What is the year-end adjusting entry on Dec 31 for Rs. 3,600 rent collected in advance on Nov. 1 and credited to rental revenue? (A) A credit to the rental revenue for Rs.600 (B) A debit to unearned revenue for Rs. 3,000 (C) A debit to rental revenue for Rs. 3,000 (D) A debit to unearned rental revenue for Rs.6000 62. : Net income plus operating expenses is equal to: (A) Net sales (B) Cost of goods available for sale (C) Cost of goods sold (D) Gross profit 63. : When purchase merchandise is returned, a credit would be made to: (A) Merchandise inventory (B) Purchase return and allowances (C) Accounts payable (D) Purchases 64. : A cash payment journal would not include a: (A) Cash credit column (B) Accounts payable debit column (C) Sales discount credit column (D) Sundry accounts debit column 65. : A customer returns merchandise that was sold on account. The account has not been paid. This transaction should be recorded in: (A) Sales journal (B) Cash receipts journal (C) Cash payments journal (D) General journal 66. : On what type of bank account may a trader draw cheques? (A) Current Account (B) Deposit Account (C) Investment Account (D) Loan Account 67. : When posting the column totals of the cash payments journal, a debit should be posted to: (A) Cash (B) Purchase discounts (C) Accounts receivable (D) Accounts payable 68. : An internal document indicating the quantity and specification of goods needed and to request that the company acquire them is called: (A) Purchase requisition (B) Written authorization to pay a vendor (C) An internal document indicating the quantity and condition of goods received (D) Document sent to a vendor requesting that goods be shipped 69. : One of the weaknesses of the direct write-off method is that: (A) It understates accounts receivable on the balance sheet (B) It violates the matching principle (C) It is too difficult to use for many companies (D) It is based on estimates 70. : Shazaib Company receives a 10% Rs.15,000 note receivable from Habib Company. The note is due in one month. The maturity value of the note is: (A) Rs.13,500 (B) Rs.15,000 (C) Rs.15,750 (D) Rs.16,500 71. : Which of the following inventory cost methods is most appropriate for a merchandise inventory with a relatively small number of unique items and a high cost per item? (A) FIFO (B) LIFO (C) Specific identification (D) Weighted average 72. : The inventory method that assigns the most recent costs to cost of goods sold is: (A) FIFO (B) LIFO (C) Weighted average (D) Specific identification 73. : In periods of rising prices, the inventory method that results in the highest net income is: (A) FIFO (B) LIFO (C) Weighted average (D) Specific identification 74. : The lower of cost or market rule for inventory is justified by the: (A) Matching principle (B) Consistency principle (C) Conservation principle (D) Historical cost principle 75. : Which of the following is an example of a capital expenditure? (A) Cost of cleaning the carpet in the main office (B) Cost of replacing light bulbs in the factory (C) Cost of replacing the roof on the office factory (D) Cost of tuning up the delivery trucks 76. : The time period over which an intangible asset should be amortized is: (A) Its estimated useful life (B) Its estimated useful life or 40 years, whichever is shorter (C) 40 years (D) Its estimated useful life or 40 years, whichever is longer 77. : An advantage of a partnership form of business organization is: (A) Unlimited liability (B) Mutual agency (C) Ease of formation (D) Limited life 78. : Partnership liquidation occurs when: (A) A new partner is admitted (B) The ownership interest of one partner is sold to a new partner (C) The assets are sold, liabilities paid, and business operations terminated (D) None of these 79. : When a limited partnership is formed: (A) The partnership activities are limited (B) All of the partners have limited liabilities (C) Some of the partners have limited liabilities (D) None of the partners have limited liabilities 80. : Which of the following is not possessed by common stockholders of a corporation? (A) The right to vote in the election of the board of directors (B) The right to receive the amount of dividends each year (C) The right to sell their stock to whoever they choose (D) The right to purchase proportionate amounts of any new stock issue 81. : What is the credit to common stock when a corporation issues 2000 shares at Rs. 32,000 with a stated value of Rs. 10 per share? (A) Rs. 20,000 (B) Rs. 32,000 (C) Rs. 12,000 (D) Rs. 2,000 82. : The par value per share of common stock represents: (A) The minimum selling price of the stock established by the articles incorporation (B) The minimum amount the stock holder will receive when the corporation is liquidated (C) An arbitrary amount established in the articles of incorporation (D) The amount of dividends to be received each year 83. : When a stock subscription at a price above par is recorded, which of the following accounts would be credited? (A) Common stock (B) Common stock subscribed (C) Paid in capital, in excess of par common (D) Both 84. : When common stock is issued in exchange for a non-cash asset, the transaction should be recorded at: (A) The par value of the stock issue (B) The fair value of the stock issue (C) The fair value of the asset acquired (D) The fair value of the stock issue or the fair value of an asset acquired, whichever can be determined more objectively 85. : How is treasury stock shown on the balance sheet? (A) As an asset (B) As a decrease in a stockholder’s equity (C) As an increase in stockholder’s equity (D) Treasury stock is not shown on the balance sheet 86. : If preferred stock has dividends in arrears, the preferred stock must be: (A) Participating (B) Callable (C) Convertible (D) Cumulative 87. : Which of the following is not classified as paid-in capital on the balance sheet? (A) Common stock (B) Common stock subscribed (C) Donated capital (D) Treasury stock 88. : An appropriation of retained earnings: (A) Has no effect on total retained earnings (B) Increases total retained earnings (C) Decreases total retained earnings (D) None of these 89. : When a small stock dividend is declared, which of the following accounts is credited? (A) Common stock (B) Dividends payable (C) Stock dividend distributable (D) Retained earnings 90. : Which of the following increases? (A) Depreciation expense (B) Acquisition of treasury stock (C) The declaration of dividend (D) Borrowing money by issuing a six-month note payable 91. : The method of payment exchange depends on: (A) Cash basis (B) Credit basis (C) Reserve basis (D) None of the above 92. : Which of the following generally is the most useful in analyzing companies of different size? (A) Comparative financial statements (B) Common size financial statements (C) Constant dollar accounting (D) The accounting policies note 93. : Common stockholder’s equity ratio is equal to: (A) Net income (B) Net income minus preferred dividends (C) Income before interest expense (D) Dividend per share of common stock 94. : Quick assets include which of the following? (A) Cash (B) Accounts receivable (C) Marketable securities (D) All of the above 95. : All of the following are true of product costs except: (A) Product costs are assets (B) Product costs are the costs incurred to acquire products to sell (C) Product costs are expensed when incurred (D) Product costs may be fixed or variable 96. : Which of the following cost is not a period cost? (A) Sales people’s salaries (B) Factory rent (C) General administrative costs (D) Research and development costs 97. : Total manufacturing costs for a period include all of the following costs except: (A) Raw materials used (B) Direct labor cost (C) Cost of goods completed (D) Factory overhead 98. : The total cost of units completed from work in process is transferred to which of the following accounts? (A) Cost of Goods sold (B) Finished Goods (C) Cost of Goods Complete (D) Merchandise inventory 99. : The amount of money in the account of an account holder is called: (A) Profit (B) Interest (C) Deposit (D) Loan Related Posts:Auditing Past PapersPast Guess Paper of AuditingAuditing MCQsBasic Auditing MCQsAdvance Health Education Past Paper Universities past papersAnatomy - II Universities Past Past Papers