2. Which imaging technique is preferred for evaluating soft tissue injuries around joints? A) X-ray B) MRI C) CT scan D) PET scan Answer: B) MRI
3. What is the primary use of a CT scan in musculoskeletal radiology? A) Detailed evaluation of complex fractures B) Soft tissue imaging C) Bone density measurement D) Cartilage assessment Answer: A) Detailed evaluation of complex fractures
4. What does a “sunburst” pattern on an X-ray typically indicate? A) Osteoporosis B) Osteosarcoma C) Rheumatoid arthritis D) Osteomyelitis Answer: B) Osteosarcoma
5. What imaging sign is indicative of a “bony ankylosis” in rheumatoid arthritis? A) Joint fusion B) Soft tissue swelling C) Subchondral cysts D) Osteophyte formation Answer: A) Joint fusion
6. What does the “moth-eaten” appearance on an X-ray suggest? A) Ewing’s sarcoma B) Osteoarthritis C) Rheumatoid arthritis D) Osteoporosis Answer: A) Ewing’s sarcoma
7. Which radiographic feature is characteristic of osteoarthritis? A) Joint space narrowing B) Soft tissue swelling C) Periosteal reaction D) Osteoblastic lesions Answer: A) Joint space narrowing
8. What does a “cortical breach” on an X-ray indicate? A) Bone metastasis B) Osteomyelitis C) Simple bone cyst D) Normal bone growth Answer: A) Bone metastasis
9. What is the hallmark radiographic finding of a simple bone cyst? A) Well-defined, central radiolucency B) Irregular bony destruction C) Periosteal elevation D) Joint effusion Answer: A) Well-defined, central radiolucency
10. How is a meniscal tear typically diagnosed? A) X-ray B) MRI C) Ultrasound D) CT scan Answer: B) MRI
11. What does the “chondroid matrix” appearance on an MRI usually indicate? A) Cartilage tumors B) Osteomyelitis C) Ligament tear D) Bone contusion Answer: A) Cartilage tumors
12. Which imaging modality is best for evaluating bone marrow edema? A) X-ray B) CT scan C) MRI D) Ultrasound Answer: C) MRI
13. What does the “bone-on-bone” appearance on an X-ray suggest? A) Advanced osteoarthritis B) Rheumatoid arthritis C) Osteomyelitis D) Bone cyst Answer: A) Advanced osteoarthritis
14. What radiographic feature is indicative of a bone infection (osteomyelitis)? A) Periosteal reaction and bone destruction B) Joint space narrowing C) Soft tissue swelling D) Normal bone density Answer: A) Periosteal reaction and bone destruction
15. Which imaging modality is most effective for assessing the rotator cuff tendons? A) X-ray B) MRI C) CT scan D) Ultrasound Answer: B) MRI
16. What is the primary imaging sign of Paget’s disease on an X-ray? A) Bone enlargement and deformity B) Joint space narrowing C) Periosteal reaction D) Soft tissue calcification Answer: A) Bone enlargement and deformity
17. What imaging feature is characteristic of a bone metastasis on a CT scan? A) Lytic lesions with possible cortical destruction B) Increased bone density C) Uniform soft tissue opacity D) Joint effusion Answer: A) Lytic lesions with possible cortical destruction
18. What does the “teardrop sign” on an X-ray often indicate? A) Spondyloarthritis B) Osteomyelitis C) Osteosarcoma D) Simple bone cyst Answer: A) Spondyloarthritis
19. How is an acute fracture typically identified on an X-ray? A) Fracture line through the cortex B) Soft tissue swelling C) Increased bone density D) Normal bone contour Answer: A) Fracture line through the cortex
20. What does the “snowball” appearance on an MRI of the bone often represent? A) Osteosarcoma B) Osteomyelitis C) Simple bone cyst D) Rheumatoid arthritis Answer: A) Osteosarcoma
21. Which radiographic feature is indicative of a fracture-dislocation of the spine? A) Displacement of vertebrae and disruption of normal alignment B) Joint space narrowing C) Periosteal reaction D) Soft tissue calcification Answer: A) Displacement of vertebrae and disruption of normal alignment
22. What is the typical appearance of a bone bruise on MRI? A) Bone marrow edema and low signal intensity B) Hyperdense mass C) Fluid-filled cyst D) Normal bone signal Answer: A) Bone marrow edema and low signal intensity
23. What imaging modality is preferred for evaluating fractures of the scaphoid bone? A) X-ray B) CT scan C) MRI D) Ultrasound Answer: B) CT scan
24. What does a “C-shaped” radiolucency on an X-ray of the femur often indicate? A) Chondrosarcoma B) Simple bone cyst C) Osteomyelitis D) Paget’s disease Answer: A) Chondrosarcoma
25. Which imaging finding is characteristic of a bone tumor on X-ray? A) Irregular borders and variable density B) Uniform density C) Joint effusion D) Soft tissue swelling Answer: A) Irregular borders and variable density
26. What does a “doughnut sign” on MRI of the spine typically indicate? A) Intervertebral disc herniation B) Osteomyelitis C) Bone metastasis D) Vertebral fracture Answer: A) Intervertebral disc herniation
27. What is the most common imaging finding in acute gouty arthritis? A) Erosions and soft tissue swelling B) Joint space narrowing C) Periosteal reaction D) Bone marrow edema Answer: A) Erosions and soft tissue swelling
28. How is a meniscal tear visualized on an MRI? A) Signal changes and abnormal meniscal shape B) Joint space narrowing C) Cortical destruction D) Fluid-filled cyst Answer: A) Signal changes and abnormal meniscal shape
29. What does a “butterfly vertebra” on an X-ray indicate? A) Congenital anomaly B) Osteomyelitis C) Osteosarcoma D) Vertebral compression fracture Answer: A) Congenital anomaly
30. What is the typical appearance of a bone metastasis on an MRI? A) Low signal intensity with irregular borders B) Uniform high signal intensity C) Well-defined, high-density mass D) Fluid-filled sac Answer: A) Low signal intensity with irregular borders
31. What imaging feature is characteristic of avascular necrosis on an MRI? A) Bone marrow edema and subchondral collapse B) Increased bone density C) Joint space narrowing D) Uniform soft tissue opacity Answer: A) Bone marrow edema and subchondral collapse
32. How is a stress fracture typically diagnosed? A) X-ray B) MRI C) Ultrasound D) CT scan Answer: B) MRI
33. What is the typical appearance of a joint effusion on an ultrasound? A) An anechoic fluid collection B) Hyperdense mass C) Uniform soft tissue density D) Bone marrow edema Answer: A) An anechoic fluid collection
34. What radiographic feature suggests a diagnosis of osteochondroma? A) Exostosis with a cartilaginous cap B) Soft tissue swelling C) Increased bone density D) Joint space narrowing Answer: A) Exostosis with a cartilaginous cap
35. What does the “step ladder” sign on an X-ray often represent? A) Bone tumor with soft tissue extension B) Osteomyelitis C) Simple bone cyst D) Osteoarthritis Answer: A) Bone tumor with soft tissue extension
36. What does the “widened joint space” on an X-ray typically indicate? A) Traumatic injury or infection B) Osteosarcoma C) Osteomyelitis D) Paget’s disease Answer: A) Traumatic injury or infection
37. What is a common radiographic feature of osteosarcoma? A) Periosteal reaction with new bone formation B) Joint space narrowing C) Fluid-filled cyst D) Normal bone density Answer: A) Periosteal reaction with new bone formation
38. What does the “bone island” appearance on an X-ray typically suggest? A) Benign bone lesion B) Malignant bone tumor C) Osteomyelitis D) Joint effusion Answer: A) Benign bone lesion
39. What is the typical imaging feature of a rotator cuff tear on an MRI? A) Tendon disruption and fluid accumulation B) Increased bone density C) Joint space narrowing D) Soft tissue calcification Answer: A) Tendon disruption and fluid accumulation
40. How is a bone contusion usually visualized on MRI? A) Bone marrow edema and signal changes B) Hyperdense mass C) Fluid-filled sac D) Uniform soft tissue density Answer: A) Bone marrow edema and signal changes
41. What imaging feature is indicative of an ankylosing spondylitis on an X-ray? A) Bamboo spine appearance B) Joint space narrowing C) Periosteal reaction D) Soft tissue swelling Answer: A) Bamboo spine appearance
42. How is a benign bone tumor like a giant cell tumor typically identified on an MRI? A) Lytic lesion with subarticular location B) Increased bone density C) Uniform high signal intensity D) Fluid-filled cyst Answer: A) Lytic lesion with subarticular location
43. What is the characteristic appearance of a Paget’s disease lesion on an X-ray? A) Enlarged and deformed bone B) Joint space narrowing C) Periosteal reaction D) Fluid-filled cyst Answer: A) Enlarged and deformed bone
44. What imaging feature is typical of an acute ligamentous injury? A) Increased signal intensity in the ligament on MRI B) Bone marrow edema C) Joint space narrowing D) Soft tissue calcification Answer: A) Increased signal intensity in the ligament on MRI
45. What is the common radiographic finding in osteoporosis? A) Decreased bone density and increased fragility B) Increased bone density C) Joint space narrowing D) Soft tissue swelling Answer: A) Decreased bone density and increased fragility
46. What does the “serpentine pattern” on an MRI often suggest in bone imaging? A) Bone metastasis or lymphoma B) Osteomyelitis C) Simple bone cyst D) Osteosarcoma Answer: A) Bone metastasis or lymphoma
47. What is the typical appearance of a calcaneal fracture on an X-ray? A) Subluxation or displacement of the calcaneus B) Increased bone density C) Uniform soft tissue density D) Fluid-filled sac Answer: A) Subluxation or displacement of the calcaneus
48. What does the “ground-glass” appearance on an X-ray suggest? A) Fibrous dysplasia B) Osteomyelitis C) Osteosarcoma D) Joint effusion Answer: A) Fibrous dysplasia
49. What radiographic feature is indicative of a bone cyst? A) Well-defined radiolucency with cortical thinning B) Increased bone density C) Soft tissue swelling D) Irregular bony destruction Answer: A) Well-defined radiolucency with cortical thinning
50. How is a calcified soft tissue mass typically visualized on an X-ray? A) Radiopaque mass with well-defined borders B) Increased bone density C) Uniform soft tissue density D) Fluid-filled cyst Answer: A) Radiopaque mass with well-defined borders
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