2. The “nightstick fracture” typically refers to an injury to which bone? a) Radius b) Ulna c) Femur d) Tibia Answer: b) Ulna
3. What is the most common site for an “intra-articular” fracture? a) Distal radius b) Proximal humerus c) Femoral neck d) Distal tibia Answer: a) Distal radius
4. A “Colles’ fracture” is characterized by which type of displacement? a) Posterior b) Anterior c) Medial d) Lateral Answer: b) Anterior
5. The “Smith’s fracture” is a type of fracture where the distal fragment of the radius is displaced: a) Posteriorly b) Anteriorly c) Medially d) Laterally Answer: a) Posteriorly
6. A “boxer’s fracture” commonly affects which bone? a) Fifth metacarpal b) Second metacarpal c) Radius d) Ulna Answer: a) Fifth metacarpal
7. The “buckle fracture” (also known as a “torus fracture”) is most commonly seen in which age group? a) Adolescents b) Elderly c) Adults d) Children Answer: d) Children
8. A “greenstick fracture” is characterized by: a) Complete fracture with fragmentation b) Partial fracture with bending c) Fracture involving both cortexes d) Fracture with soft tissue involvement Answer: b) Partial fracture with bending
9. The “Harrison’s groove” is associated with which bone disease? a) Osteomalacia b) Paget’s disease c) Osteoporosis d) Rickets Answer: d) Rickets
10. Which of the following is a radiologic feature of osteoporosis? a) Increased bone density b) Cortical thinning c) Sclerotic bone d) Periosteal reaction Answer: b) Cortical thinning
11. “Paget’s disease” of bone typically results in: a) Increased bone density and deformity b) Decreased bone density c) Bone necrosis d) Osteomyelitis Answer: a) Increased bone density and deformity
12. The “bone within a bone” appearance is characteristic of which condition? a) Osteopetrosis b) Osteosarcoma c) Fibrous dysplasia d) Ewing’s sarcoma Answer: a) Osteopetrosis
13. In which condition would you most likely see “subperiosteal bone resorption”? a) Osteoporosis b) Hyperparathyroidism c) Osteomalacia d) Rickets Answer: b) Hyperparathyroidism
14. “Osteomyelitis” commonly presents on X-ray with: a) Cortical erosion b) Increased bone density c) Bone sclerosis d) Normal bone density Answer: a) Cortical erosion
15. The “sunburst” pattern on bone X-ray is most commonly associated with which tumor? a) Osteosarcoma b) Chondrosarcoma c) Ewing’s sarcoma d) Giant cell tumor Answer: a) Osteosarcoma
16. The “cortical stratification” on imaging is characteristic of which bone disease? a) Paget’s disease b) Osteopetrosis c) Osteomalacia d) Rickets Answer: a) Paget’s disease
17. “Fibrous dysplasia” of bone is best characterized by: a) Ground-glass appearance b) Increased bone density c) Multiple small lytic lesions d) Periosteal reaction Answer: a) Ground-glass appearance
18. The “moth-eaten” appearance on bone X-ray is indicative of: a) Osteomyelitis b) Metastatic disease c) Osteosarcoma d) Multiple myeloma Answer: b) Metastatic disease
19. In which condition would you expect to find “lateral femoral head necrosis”? a) Osteonecrosis b) Osteomyelitis c) Osteosarcoma d) Paget’s disease Answer: a) Osteonecrosis
20. The “double bubble” sign on X-ray is indicative of which condition? a) Duodenal atresia b) Intussusception c) Gastric ulcer d) Pyloric stenosis Answer: a) Duodenal atresia
21. “Chronic osteomyelitis” is characterized by which radiologic finding? a) Sequestrum formation b) Increased bone density c) Bone marrow edema d) Periosteal reaction Answer: a) Sequestrum formation
22. A “stress fracture” is typically associated with which type of activity? a) Sudden trauma b) High-impact sports c) Repetitive stress d) Heavy lifting Answer: c) Repetitive stress
23. The “wormian bones” seen on skull X-ray are associated with which condition? a) Osteogenesis imperfecta b) Paget’s disease c) Rickets d) Osteomalacia Answer: a) Osteogenesis imperfecta
24. The “bowing deformity” of the tibia is most commonly seen in which condition? a) Rickets b) Osteomyelitis c) Osteopetrosis d) Paget’s disease Answer: a) Rickets
25. The “salt-and-pepper” appearance on skull radiographs is characteristic of: a) Neurofibromatosis b) Hyperparathyroidism c) Osteomyelitis d) Osteosarcoma Answer: b) Hyperparathyroidism
26. A “rind sign” on CT is indicative of which tumor? a) Meningioma b) Schwannoma c) Pituitary adenoma d) Glioblastoma Answer: a) Meningioma
27. “Spiral fractures” are often indicative of: a) Twisting injury b) Direct blow c) Stress-related injury d) Penetrating trauma Answer: a) Twisting injury
28. The “scaphoid fracture” is most commonly associated with injury to which body part? a) Wrist b) Ankle c) Femur d) Humerus Answer: a) Wrist
29. The “clavicular fracture” is commonly treated with: a) Cast b) Sling c) Surgery d) Physiotherapy Answer: b) Sling
30. The “pelvic fracture” is often assessed with which imaging modality for accurate evaluation? a) X-ray b) CT scan c) MRI d) Ultrasound Answer: b) CT scan
31. The “radiological sign” indicating “bone marrow edema” is commonly associated with: a) Acute fractures b) Chronic osteomyelitis c) Osteoporosis d) Paget’s disease Answer: a) Acute fractures
32. The “cortical thinning” seen on imaging is a hallmark of which disease? a) Osteoporosis b) Osteosarcoma c) Osteopetrosis d) Osteomalacia Answer: a) Osteoporosis
33. The “lateral condyle fracture” is associated with injury to which joint? a) Elbow b) Knee c) Ankle d) Shoulder Answer: a) Elbow
34. The “patellar fracture” typically results from: a) Direct trauma to the knee b) Twisting injury c) Repetitive stress d) Fall on an outstretched hand Answer: a) Direct trauma to the knee
35. The “giant cell tumor” is most commonly found in which area of the body? a) Distal femur b) Proximal tibia c) Proximal humerus d) Pelvis Answer: a) Distal femur
36. The “cystic lesion with eccentric location” is characteristic of which tumor? a) Aneurysmal bone cyst b) Osteosarcoma c) Ewing’s sarcoma d) Chondrosarcoma Answer: a) Aneurysmal bone cyst
37. The “lacy appearance” of bone trabeculae is indicative of: a) Osteomalacia b) Paget’s disease c) Osteoporosis d) Osteopetrosis Answer: c) Osteoporosis
38. The “stair-step” pattern of calcification on imaging is associated with which tumor? a) Meningioma b) Schwannoma c) Neurofibroma d) Pituitary adenoma Answer: a) Meningioma
39. The “coast of Maine” appearance on imaging is characteristic of which condition? a) Neurofibromatosis b) Osteopetrosis c) Paget’s disease d) Osteomyelitis Answer: a) Neurofibromatosis
40. A “recurrent fracture” in a patient with normal bone density might indicate: a) Osteogenesis imperfecta b) Osteoporosis c) Osteomyelitis d) Paget’s disease Answer: a) Osteogenesis imperfecta
41. The “moth-eaten” appearance on radiograph is most commonly associated with: a) Ewing’s sarcoma b) Osteomyelitis c) Multiple myeloma d) Osteosarcoma Answer: c) Multiple myeloma
42. The “whittling” of bone seen on X-ray is characteristic of which disease? a) Osteomyelitis b) Osteoporosis c) Paget’s disease d) Rickets Answer: c) Paget’s disease
43. The “pseudoarthrosis” is often seen in which condition? a) Non-union of fracture b) Osteomyelitis c) Osteosarcoma d) Fibrous dysplasia Answer: a) Non-union of fracture
44. The “enlarged bone with cortical thickening” is characteristic of which disease? a) Paget’s disease b) Osteopetrosis c) Osteomyelitis d) Osteoporosis Answer: a) Paget’s disease
45. The “dorsal angulation” of the distal radius is seen in which type of fracture? a) Colles’ fracture b) Smith’s fracture c) Greenstick fracture d) Boxer’s fracture Answer: a) Colles’ fracture
46. The “ball and socket” deformity of the hip is commonly seen in which condition? a) Developmental dysplasia b) Osteomyelitis c) Osteosarcoma d) Paget’s disease Answer: a) Developmental dysplasia
47. The “depressed fracture” of the skull is indicative of: a) Trauma b) Osteomyelitis c) Paget’s disease d) Osteosarcoma Answer: a) Trauma
48. The “hyperostosis” observed in imaging is associated with: a) Osteopetrosis b) Paget’s disease c) Osteomyelitis d) Osteoporosis Answer: b) Paget’s disease
49. The “penumbra sign” on MRI is indicative of which condition? a) Osteomyelitis b) Osteonecrosis c) Chondrosarcoma d) Ewing’s sarcoma Answer: b) Osteonecrosis
50. The “triple-phase bone scan” is most useful for diagnosing: a) Osteomyelitis b) Stress fractures c) Bone tumors d) Osteoporosis Answer: c) Bone tumors
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