1. The “butterfly fragment” is most commonly associated with which type of fracture?
a) Comminuted fracture
b) Greenstick fracture
c) Spiral fracture
d) Transverse fracture
Answer: a) Comminuted fracture
2. The “nightstick fracture” typically refers to an injury to which bone?
a) Radius
b) Ulna
c) Femur
d) Tibia
Answer: b) Ulna
3. What is the most common site for an “intra-articular” fracture?
a) Distal radius
b) Proximal humerus
c) Femoral neck
d) Distal tibia
Answer: a) Distal radius
4. A “Colles’ fracture” is characterized by which type of displacement?
a) Posterior
b) Anterior
c) Medial
d) Lateral
Answer: b) Anterior
5. The “Smith’s fracture” is a type of fracture where the distal fragment of the radius is displaced:
a) Posteriorly
b) Anteriorly
c) Medially
d) Laterally
Answer: a) Posteriorly
6. A “boxer’s fracture” commonly affects which bone?
a) Fifth metacarpal
b) Second metacarpal
c) Radius
d) Ulna
Answer: a) Fifth metacarpal
7. The “buckle fracture” (also known as a “torus fracture”) is most commonly seen in which age group?
a) Adolescents
b) Elderly
c) Adults
d) Children
Answer: d) Children
8. A “greenstick fracture” is characterized by:
a) Complete fracture with fragmentation
b) Partial fracture with bending
c) Fracture involving both cortexes
d) Fracture with soft tissue involvement
Answer: b) Partial fracture with bending
9. The “Harrison’s groove” is associated with which bone disease?
a) Osteomalacia
b) Paget’s disease
c) Osteoporosis
d) Rickets
Answer: d) Rickets
10. Which of the following is a radiologic feature of osteoporosis?
a) Increased bone density
b) Cortical thinning
c) Sclerotic bone
d) Periosteal reaction
Answer: b) Cortical thinning
11. “Paget’s disease” of bone typically results in:
a) Increased bone density and deformity
b) Decreased bone density
c) Bone necrosis
d) Osteomyelitis
Answer: a) Increased bone density and deformity
12. The “bone within a bone” appearance is characteristic of which condition?
a) Osteopetrosis
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Fibrous dysplasia
d) Ewing’s sarcoma
Answer: a) Osteopetrosis
13. In which condition would you most likely see “subperiosteal bone resorption”?
a) Osteoporosis
b) Hyperparathyroidism
c) Osteomalacia
d) Rickets
Answer: b) Hyperparathyroidism
14. “Osteomyelitis” commonly presents on X-ray with:
a) Cortical erosion
b) Increased bone density
c) Bone sclerosis
d) Normal bone density
Answer: a) Cortical erosion
15. The “sunburst” pattern on bone X-ray is most commonly associated with which tumor?
a) Osteosarcoma
b) Chondrosarcoma
c) Ewing’s sarcoma
d) Giant cell tumor
Answer: a) Osteosarcoma
16. The “cortical stratification” on imaging is characteristic of which bone disease?
a) Paget’s disease
b) Osteopetrosis
c) Osteomalacia
d) Rickets
Answer: a) Paget’s disease
17. “Fibrous dysplasia” of bone is best characterized by:
a) Ground-glass appearance
b) Increased bone density
c) Multiple small lytic lesions
d) Periosteal reaction
Answer: a) Ground-glass appearance
18. The “moth-eaten” appearance on bone X-ray is indicative of:
a) Osteomyelitis
b) Metastatic disease
c) Osteosarcoma
d) Multiple myeloma
Answer: b) Metastatic disease
19. In which condition would you expect to find “lateral femoral head necrosis”?
a) Osteonecrosis
b) Osteomyelitis
c) Osteosarcoma
d) Paget’s disease
Answer: a) Osteonecrosis
20. The “double bubble” sign on X-ray is indicative of which condition?
a) Duodenal atresia
b) Intussusception
c) Gastric ulcer
d) Pyloric stenosis
Answer: a) Duodenal atresia
21. “Chronic osteomyelitis” is characterized by which radiologic finding?
a) Sequestrum formation
b) Increased bone density
c) Bone marrow edema
d) Periosteal reaction
Answer: a) Sequestrum formation
22. A “stress fracture” is typically associated with which type of activity?
a) Sudden trauma
b) High-impact sports
c) Repetitive stress
d) Heavy lifting
Answer: c) Repetitive stress
23. The “wormian bones” seen on skull X-ray are associated with which condition?
a) Osteogenesis imperfecta
b) Paget’s disease
c) Rickets
d) Osteomalacia
Answer: a) Osteogenesis imperfecta
24. The “bowing deformity” of the tibia is most commonly seen in which condition?
a) Rickets
b) Osteomyelitis
c) Osteopetrosis
d) Paget’s disease
Answer: a) Rickets
25. The “salt-and-pepper” appearance on skull radiographs is characteristic of:
a) Neurofibromatosis
b) Hyperparathyroidism
c) Osteomyelitis
d) Osteosarcoma
Answer: b) Hyperparathyroidism
26. A “rind sign” on CT is indicative of which tumor?
a) Meningioma
b) Schwannoma
c) Pituitary adenoma
d) Glioblastoma
Answer: a) Meningioma
27. “Spiral fractures” are often indicative of:
a) Twisting injury
b) Direct blow
c) Stress-related injury
d) Penetrating trauma
Answer: a) Twisting injury
28. The “scaphoid fracture” is most commonly associated with injury to which body part?
a) Wrist
b) Ankle
c) Femur
d) Humerus
Answer: a) Wrist
29. The “clavicular fracture” is commonly treated with:
a) Cast
b) Sling
c) Surgery
d) Physiotherapy
Answer: b) Sling
30. The “pelvic fracture” is often assessed with which imaging modality for accurate evaluation?
a) X-ray
b) CT scan
c) MRI
d) Ultrasound
Answer: b) CT scan
31. The “radiological sign” indicating “bone marrow edema” is commonly associated with:
a) Acute fractures
b) Chronic osteomyelitis
c) Osteoporosis
d) Paget’s disease
Answer: a) Acute fractures
32. The “cortical thinning” seen on imaging is a hallmark of which disease?
a) Osteoporosis
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Osteopetrosis
d) Osteomalacia
Answer: a) Osteoporosis
33. The “lateral condyle fracture” is associated with injury to which joint?
a) Elbow
b) Knee
c) Ankle
d) Shoulder
Answer: a) Elbow
34. The “patellar fracture” typically results from:
a) Direct trauma to the knee
b) Twisting injury
c) Repetitive stress
d) Fall on an outstretched hand
Answer: a) Direct trauma to the knee
35. The “giant cell tumor” is most commonly found in which area of the body?
a) Distal femur
b) Proximal tibia
c) Proximal humerus
d) Pelvis
Answer: a) Distal femur
36. The “cystic lesion with eccentric location” is characteristic of which tumor?
a) Aneurysmal bone cyst
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Ewing’s sarcoma
d) Chondrosarcoma
Answer: a) Aneurysmal bone cyst
37. The “lacy appearance” of bone trabeculae is indicative of:
a) Osteomalacia
b) Paget’s disease
c) Osteoporosis
d) Osteopetrosis
Answer: c) Osteoporosis
38. The “stair-step” pattern of calcification on imaging is associated with which tumor?
a) Meningioma
b) Schwannoma
c) Neurofibroma
d) Pituitary adenoma
Answer: a) Meningioma
39. The “coast of Maine” appearance on imaging is characteristic of which condition?
a) Neurofibromatosis
b) Osteopetrosis
c) Paget’s disease
d) Osteomyelitis
Answer: a) Neurofibromatosis
40. A “recurrent fracture” in a patient with normal bone density might indicate:
a) Osteogenesis imperfecta
b) Osteoporosis
c) Osteomyelitis
d) Paget’s disease
Answer: a) Osteogenesis imperfecta
41. The “moth-eaten” appearance on radiograph is most commonly associated with:
a) Ewing’s sarcoma
b) Osteomyelitis
c) Multiple myeloma
d) Osteosarcoma
Answer: c) Multiple myeloma
42. The “whittling” of bone seen on X-ray is characteristic of which disease?
a) Osteomyelitis
b) Osteoporosis
c) Paget’s disease
d) Rickets
Answer: c) Paget’s disease
43. The “pseudoarthrosis” is often seen in which condition?
a) Non-union of fracture
b) Osteomyelitis
c) Osteosarcoma
d) Fibrous dysplasia
Answer: a) Non-union of fracture
44. The “enlarged bone with cortical thickening” is characteristic of which disease?
a) Paget’s disease
b) Osteopetrosis
c) Osteomyelitis
d) Osteoporosis
Answer: a) Paget’s disease
45. The “dorsal angulation” of the distal radius is seen in which type of fracture?
a) Colles’ fracture
b) Smith’s fracture
c) Greenstick fracture
d) Boxer’s fracture
Answer: a) Colles’ fracture
46. The “ball and socket” deformity of the hip is commonly seen in which condition?
a) Developmental dysplasia
b) Osteomyelitis
c) Osteosarcoma
d) Paget’s disease
Answer: a) Developmental dysplasia
47. The “depressed fracture” of the skull is indicative of:
a) Trauma
b) Osteomyelitis
c) Paget’s disease
d) Osteosarcoma
Answer: a) Trauma
48. The “hyperostosis” observed in imaging is associated with:
a) Osteopetrosis
b) Paget’s disease
c) Osteomyelitis
d) Osteoporosis
Answer: b) Paget’s disease
49. The “penumbra sign” on MRI is indicative of which condition?
a) Osteomyelitis
b) Osteonecrosis
c) Chondrosarcoma
d) Ewing’s sarcoma
Answer: b) Osteonecrosis
50. The “triple-phase bone scan” is most useful for diagnosing:
a) Osteomyelitis
b) Stress fractures
c) Bone tumors
d) Osteoporosis
Answer: c) Bone tumors
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