1. What is the most common cause of neonatal respiratory distress?
A) Pneumonia
B) Respiratory Distress Syndrome
C) Congenital Heart Disease
D) Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
Answer: B) Respiratory Distress Syndrome
2. What is the normal range for a newborn’s heart rate?
A) 60-100 bpm
B) 100-160 bpm
C) 160-200 bpm
D) 200-240 bpm
Answer: B) 100-160 bpm
3. Which of the following is a common sign of jaundice in newborns?
A) Pallor
B) Cyanosis
C) Yellowing of the skin
D) Rashes
Answer: C) Yellowing of the skin
4. At what age should a newborn first pass meconium?
A) Within 24 hours
B) Within 48 hours
C) Within 72 hours
D) Within 96 hours
Answer: A) Within 24 hours
5. What is the recommended initial treatment for hypoglycemia in a newborn?
A) Insulin administration
B) Oral glucose
C) Intravenous fluids
D) Sodium bicarbonate
Answer: B) Oral glucose
6. What is the most common method for assessing a newborn’s gestational age?
A) Apgar score
B) Ballard score
C) Birth weight
D) Head circumference
Answer: B) Ballard score
7. What is the primary purpose of administering vitamin K to newborns?
A) To prevent anemia
B) To prevent bleeding disorders
C) To enhance bone growth
D) To prevent jaundice
Answer: B) To prevent bleeding disorders
8. Which condition is characterized by a “grunting” sound during respiration in a newborn?
A) Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
B) Respiratory Distress Syndrome
C) Patent Ductus Arteriosus
D) Cystic Fibrosis
Answer: B) Respiratory Distress Syndrome
9. How often should a newborn be fed in the first few days of life?
A) Every 2-3 hours
B) Every 4-5 hours
C) Every 6-8 hours
D) Every 10-12 hours
Answer: A) Every 2-3 hours
10. What is the main purpose of the Apgar score?
A) To evaluate the newborn’s feeding ability
B) To assess the newborn’s overall health and vital signs
C) To determine the gestational age
D) To check for congenital abnormalities
Answer: B) To assess the newborn’s overall health and vital signs
11. What is the most common congenital heart defect in newborns?
A) Atrial Septal Defect
B) Ventricular Septal Defect
C) Patent Ductus Arteriosus
D) Tetralogy of Fallot
Answer: B) Ventricular Septal Defect
12. Which screening test is routinely performed to detect phenylketonuria (PKU) in newborns?
A) Heel prick test
B) Blood pressure test
C) Urine test
D) Ultrasound
Answer: A) Heel prick test
13. What is the primary treatment for hyperbilirubinemia in newborns?
A) Phototherapy
B) Antibiotics
C) Blood transfusion
D) Surgery
Answer: A) Phototherapy
14. At what age should a newborn be screened for hearing loss?
A) Within the first 24 hours
B) Within the first week
C) Within the first month
D) Within the first three months
Answer: B) Within the first week
15. Which of the following is a sign of sepsis in a newborn?
A) Hyperthermia
B) Hypothermia
C) Increased appetite
D) High blood pressure
Answer: B) Hypothermia
16. What is the primary cause of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?
A) Prematurity
B) Maternal diabetes
C) Maternal hypertension
D) Intrauterine growth restriction
Answer: A) Prematurity
17. What is the most important aspect of newborn care in the first hour of life?
A) Establishing feeding
B) Performing a physical examination
C) Ensuring thermal stability
D) Administering vaccinations
Answer: C) Ensuring thermal stability
18. What is the recommended position for a newborn during sleep to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?
A) Prone position
B) Supine position
C) Lateral position
D) Sitting position
Answer: B) Supine position
19. What condition is characterized by the absence of the normal respiratory effort in a newborn?
A) Apnea of Prematurity
B) Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
C) Neonatal Rashes
D) Hypoglycemia
Answer: A) Apnea of Prematurity
20. What is the purpose of administering surfactant to premature infants?
A) To prevent infection
B) To improve lung function
C) To enhance blood clotting
D) To manage jaundice
Answer: B) To improve lung function
21. What is the most common cause of hypotonia in a newborn?
A) Birth trauma
B) Intrauterine infection
C) Down syndrome
D) Prematurity
Answer: D) Prematurity
22. What is the typical range for a newborn’s birth weight?
A) 2-3 pounds
B) 5-10 pounds
C) 10-15 pounds
D) 15-20 pounds
Answer: B) 5-10 pounds
23. What condition may require the use of an incubator in a newborn?
A) Hyperthermia
B) Hyperbilirubinemia
C) Hypothermia
D) Hyperglycemia
Answer: C) Hypothermia
24. Which of the following is an indication for performing a newborn screening test?
A) Presence of congenital anomalies
B) Detection of metabolic disorders
C) Monitoring growth patterns
D) Assessing developmental milestones
Answer: B) Detection of metabolic disorders
25. What is a common complication of untreated hyperbilirubinemia?
A) Neurological damage
B) Respiratory distress
C) Cardiac arrhythmias
D) Gastrointestinal bleeding
Answer: A) Neurological damage
26. What is the most common method for assessing a newborn’s gestational age?
A) Birth weight
B) Head circumference
C) Ballard score
D) Apgar score
Answer: C) Ballard score
27. What condition is characterized by the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity of a newborn?
A) Hydrocephalus
B) Pleural Effusion
C) Ascites
D) Edema
Answer: B) Pleural Effusion
28. What is the primary goal of resuscitation in a newborn?
A) To stabilize the heart rate
B) To ensure adequate oxygenation
C) To manage blood pressure
D) To correct electrolyte imbalances
Answer: B) To ensure adequate oxygenation
29. What is the recommended treatment for a newborn with a congenital hypothyroidism diagnosis?
A) Surgery
B) Thyroid hormone replacement therapy
C) Antihypertensive medication
D) Antiviral medication
Answer: B) Thyroid hormone replacement therapy
30. Which of the following is a sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome?
A) Excessive sleepiness
B) High fever
C) Irritability and tremors
D) Hyperactivity
Answer: C) Irritability and tremors
31. At what weight is a newborn considered low birth weight?
A) Less than 5 pounds
B) Less than 4 pounds
C) Less than 3 pounds
D) Less than 2 pounds
Answer: A) Less than 5 pounds
32. What condition may be indicated by a bulging fontanelle in a newborn?
A) Dehydration
B) Meningitis
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Respiratory distress
Answer: B) Meningitis
33. What is a common complication of premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?
A) Neonatal infection
B) Jaundice
C) Hyperbilirubinemia
D) Neonatal hypoglycemia
Answer: A) Neonatal infection
34. What is the initial management step for a newborn with a suspected congenital diaphragmatic hernia?
A) Immediate surgery
B) Providing respiratory support
C) Administering antibiotics
D) Performing a chest X-ray
Answer: B) Providing respiratory support
35. Which of the following is a risk factor for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?
A) Sleeping in the supine position
B) Parental smoking
C) Exclusive breastfeeding
D) Use of a pacifier
Answer: B) Parental smoking
36. What is the primary benefit of early initiation of breastfeeding for a newborn?
A) Increased risk of jaundice
B) Enhanced bonding with the mother
C) Decreased risk of infection
D) Reduced risk of birth defects
Answer: C) Decreased risk of infection
37. What is the most common cause of hyperglycemia in a newborn?
A) Neonatal diabetes
B) Birth trauma
C) Premature birth
D) Maternal diabetes
Answer: D) Maternal diabetes
38. What is the typical frequency of monitoring blood glucose levels in a newborn with hypoglycemia?
A) Every 30 minutes
B) Every hour
C) Every 2 hours
D) Every 4 hours
Answer: A) Every 30 minutes
39. What is a common sign of necrotizing enterocolitis in a premature newborn?
A) Diarrhea
B) Abdominal distention
C) Rapid breathing
D) Excessive weight gain
Answer: B) Abdominal distention
40. What is the most common cause of convulsions in a newborn?
A) Intrauterine infection
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Birth trauma
D) Seizure disorder
Answer: B) Hypoglycemia
41. What is the primary purpose of administering prophylactic antibiotics to a newborn?
A) To prevent neonatal infections
B) To manage jaundice
C) To support lung function
D) To enhance bone density
Answer: A) To prevent neonatal infections
42. What is the most common type of bilirubin that causes jaundice in a newborn?
A) Conjugated bilirubin
B) Unconjugated bilirubin
C) Direct bilirubin
D) Indirect bilirubin
Answer: B) Unconjugated bilirubin
43. Which of the following is a common practice to prevent hypothermia in newborns?
A) Placing the baby in a warm room
B) Using a heated blanket
C) Swaddling the baby
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
44. What is the most common genetic disorder screened for in newborns?
A) Down syndrome
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Sickle cell disease
D) Tay-Sachs disease
Answer: C) Sickle cell disease
45. What is the initial management step for a newborn with suspected sepsis?
A) Administering oral antibiotics
B) Performing a blood culture
C) Providing supportive care
D) Administering intravenous antibiotics
Answer: D) Administering intravenous antibiotics
46. Which of the following is a common sign of a congenital heart defect in a newborn?
A) High blood pressure
B) Cyanosis
C) Excessive weight gain
D) Rapid weight loss
Answer: B) Cyanosis
47. What is the purpose of administering surfactant to preterm infants?
A) To reduce respiratory distress
B) To treat jaundice
C) To manage hyperglycemia
D) To prevent infections
Answer: A) To reduce respiratory distress
48. What is a common sign of a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in a newborn?
A) Persistent murmur
B) Rapid weight gain
C) Excessive crying
D) Decreased appetite
Answer: A) Persistent murmur
49. What is the recommended position for a newborn with suspected hip dysplasia?
A) Supine position
B) Prone position
C) Flexed and abducted legs
D) Extended legs
Answer: C) Flexed and abducted legs
50. What is the most common cause of an asymmetrical cry in a newborn?
A) Birth trauma
B) Infection
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Respiratory distress
Answer: A) Birth trauma