1. What is the primary function of the placenta in fetal development?
a) Oxygen exchange
b) Nutrient absorption
c) Hormone production
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
2. Which of the following is the most common cause of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)?
a) Maternal diabetes
b) Fetal chromosomal abnormalities
c) Uteroplacental insufficiency
d) Fetal infections
Answer: c) Uteroplacental insufficiency
3. Fetal heart rate monitoring is typically used to assess:
a) Fetal movements
b) Fetal well-being
c) Fetal lung maturity
d) Amniotic fluid volume
Answer: b) Fetal well-being
4. Which of the following is the primary method of assessing fetal lung maturity?
a) Fetal heart rate monitoring
b) Amniocentesis
c) Doppler ultrasound
d) Chorionic villus sampling
Answer: b) Amniocentesis
5. Which condition is most likely to require intrauterine transfusion?
a) Rh incompatibility
b) Fetal hydrops
c) IUGR
d) Preterm labor
Answer: a) Rh incompatibility
6. What is the purpose of administering corticosteroids to a pregnant woman at risk of preterm delivery?
a) To prevent maternal hypertension
b) To promote fetal lung maturity
c) To reduce the risk of fetal infection
d) To induce labor
Answer: b) To promote fetal lung maturity
7. At what gestational age is a fetus generally considered viable?
a) 20 weeks
b) 24 weeks
c) 28 weeks
d) 30 weeks
Answer: b) 24 weeks
8. Which imaging technique is most commonly used to monitor fetal growth and development?
a) MRI
b) X-ray
c) Ultrasound
d) CT scan
Answer: c) Ultrasound
9. Which of the following is a major risk factor for fetal macrosomia?
a) Maternal hypertension
b) Maternal diabetes
c) Fetal anemia
d) Fetal infection
Answer: b) Maternal diabetes
10. The biophysical profile (BPP) includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Fetal breathing movements
b) Fetal tone
c) Amniotic fluid volume
d) Fetal heart anatomy
Answer: d) Fetal heart anatomy
11. What is the purpose of Doppler ultrasound in fetal medicine?
a) To measure fetal growth
b) To assess blood flow in the placenta and umbilical cord
c) To detect fetal anomalies
d) To determine fetal position
Answer: b) To assess blood flow in the placenta and umbilical cord
12. Polyhydramnios is characterized by:
a) Excess amniotic fluid
b) Decreased amniotic fluid
c) Premature rupture of membranes
d) Fetal anemia
Answer: a) Excess amniotic fluid
13. Oligohydramnios is associated with:
a) Excess amniotic fluid
b) Reduced amniotic fluid
c) Preterm labor
d) Fetal macrosomia
Answer: b) Reduced amniotic fluid
14. Which of the following is the earliest indicator of fetal hypoxia?
a) Reduced fetal movements
b) Abnormal fetal heart rate
c) Oligohydramnios
d) IUGR
Answer: b) Abnormal fetal heart rate
15. Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) is most commonly seen in:
a) Dichorionic twins
b) Monochorionic twins
c) Fraternal twins
d) Dizygotic twins
Answer: b) Monochorionic twins
16. What is the primary purpose of chorionic villus sampling (CVS)?
a) To assess fetal growth
b) To diagnose genetic disorders
c) To monitor fetal heart rate
d) To determine fetal lung maturity
Answer: b) To diagnose genetic disorders
17. Which of the following is a common cause of fetal anemia?
a) Rh incompatibility
b) Maternal hypertension
c) Oligohydramnios
d) Fetal infection
Answer: a) Rh incompatibility
18. Which condition is characterized by fluid accumulation in two or more fetal compartments, such as the abdomen or lungs?
a) IUGR
b) Polyhydramnios
c) Fetal hydrops
d) Fetal macrosomia
Answer: c) Fetal hydrops
19. What is the most common cause of congenital infections in the fetus?
a) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
b) Rubella
c) Toxoplasmosis
d) Herpes simplex virus
Answer: a) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
20. Amniocentesis is most commonly performed at what gestational age?
a) 8-10 weeks
b) 11-13 weeks
c) 15-18 weeks
d) 20-22 weeks
Answer: c) 15-18 weeks
21. What does the presence of meconium-stained amniotic fluid indicate?
a) Fetal distress
b) Preterm labor
c) Fetal infection
d) Placental insufficiency
Answer: a) Fetal distress
22. What is the normal range for fetal heart rate during the second and third trimesters?
a) 80-120 bpm
b) 110-160 bpm
c) 150-180 bpm
d) 180-210 bpm
Answer: b) 110-160 bpm
23. The most common cause of preterm labor is:
a) Fetal infection
b) Placental insufficiency
c) Maternal stress
d) Unknown etiology
Answer: d) Unknown etiology
24. Which of the following is used to assess fetal well-being in cases of suspected preeclampsia?
a) Amniocentesis
b) Fetal heart rate monitoring
c) Biophysical profile
d) Doppler ultrasound
Answer: d) Doppler ultrasound
25. The lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio in amniotic fluid is used to assess:
a) Fetal anemia
b) Fetal lung maturity
c) Fetal heart rate
d) Fetal genetic disorders
Answer: b) Fetal lung maturity
26. Intrauterine fetal demise (IUFD) is defined as:
a) Fetal death after 20 weeks of gestation
b) Fetal death before 20 weeks of gestation
c) Fetal death during labor
d) Fetal death due to preterm labor
Answer: a) Fetal death after 20 weeks of gestation
27. What is the recommended treatment for preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM) before 34 weeks of gestation?
a) Immediate delivery
b) Corticosteroids and antibiotics
c) Tocolytics
d) Amniocentesis
Answer: b) Corticosteroids and antibiotics
28. Which of the following increases the risk of placental abruption?
a) Oligohydramnios
b) Hypertension
c) Gestational diabetes
d) Fetal macrosomia
Answer: b) Hypertension
29. Fetal macrosomia is most commonly associated with:
a) Maternal undernutrition
b) Maternal obesity
c) Multiple pregnancies
d) Polyhydramnios
Answer: b) Maternal obesity
30. The Apgar score assesses all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Heart rate
b) Respiratory effort
c) Reflex irritability
d) Fetal weight
Answer: d) Fetal weight
31. Which test is most commonly used to screen for Down syndrome in the first trimester?
a) Amniocentesis
b) CVS
c) Nuchal translucency ultrasound
d) Fetal Doppler
Answer: c) Nuchal translucency ultrasound
32. What is the most common type of neural tube defect?
a) Anencephaly
b) Spina bifida
c) Encephalocele
d) Meningocele
Answer: b) Spina bifida
33. What is the primary purpose of Rh immunoglobulin (RhIg) administration during pregnancy?
a) To treat fetal anemia
b) To prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers
c) To promote fetal lung maturity
d) To induce labor
Answer: b) To prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers