1. Which of the following is the recommended supplement for pregnant women to prevent neural tube defects?
a) Calcium
b) Folic acid
c) Iron
d) Vitamin D
Answer: b) Folic acid
2. What is the primary purpose of antenatal care?
a) Provide postpartum support
b) Monitor fetal and maternal health
c) Improve fertility
d) Promote child vaccination
Answer: b) Monitor fetal and maternal health
3. The Apgar score assesses the newborn’s condition based on all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Heart rate
b) Reflex irritability
c) Blood glucose levels
d) Muscle tone
Answer: c) Blood glucose levels
4. What is the leading cause of maternal mortality worldwide?
a) Infection
b) Hemorrhage
c) Hypertension
d) Anemia
Answer: b) Hemorrhage
5. Which vaccine is given to newborns to prevent tuberculosis?
a) BCG
b) DPT
c) Hepatitis B
d) Polio
Answer: a) BCG
6. Which of the following is the recommended exclusive breastfeeding duration for infants?
a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 9 months
d) 1 year
Answer: b) 6 months
7. What is the recommended interval between pregnancies to ensure optimal maternal and child health?
a) Less than 6 months
b) 12 months
c) 18-24 months
d) 36 months
Answer: c) 18-24 months
8. Which of the following is NOT a sign of preeclampsia in pregnant women?
a) High blood pressure
b) Proteinuria
c) Low blood sugar
d) Swelling in hands and face
Answer: c) Low blood sugar
9. What is the recommended position for a baby to be in during childbirth for a safe vaginal delivery?
a) Breech
b) Transverse
c) Cephalic
d) Posterior
Answer: c) Cephalic
10. Which vitamin is crucial for preventing night blindness in children?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin E
Answer: a) Vitamin A
11. Which of the following is NOT typically provided in postnatal care for mothers?
a) Contraceptive advice
b) Nutritional counseling
c) Immunization
d) Postpartum depression screening
Answer: c) Immunization
12. Kangaroo mother care is primarily recommended for which group of infants?
a) Full-term babies
b) Low birth weight babies
c) Babies with jaundice
d) Babies with infections
Answer: b) Low birth weight babies
13. Which hormone is responsible for the production of breast milk?
a) Oxytocin
b) Estrogen
c) Progesterone
d) Prolactin
Answer: d) Prolactin
14. What is the main cause of neonatal death globally?
a) Prematurity
b) Malnutrition
c) Birth asphyxia
d) Congenital anomalies
Answer: a) Prematurity
15. What is the ideal method for infant feeding for the first six months of life?
a) Bottle feeding
b) Mixed feeding
c) Exclusive breastfeeding
d) Formula feeding
Answer: c) Exclusive breastfeeding
16. The term “perinatal period” refers to:
a) The first month after birth
b) The period from the 28th week of gestation to 7 days after birth
c) The entire pregnancy
d) The first year of life
Answer: b) The period from the 28th week of gestation to 7 days after birth
17. Which of the following is an essential micronutrient given to infants at birth to prevent bleeding disorders?
a) Iron
b) Folic acid
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin K
Answer: d) Vitamin K
18. What is the minimum recommended weight gain during pregnancy for a healthy pregnancy?
a) 5 kg
b) 7 kg
c) 10 kg
d) 12 kg
Answer: d) 12 kg
19. What is the leading cause of death in children under 5 years of age?
a) Measles
b) Diarrhea
c) Malnutrition
d) Pneumonia
Answer: d) Pneumonia
20. What is colostrum?
a) The first stool passed by a newborn
b) The first milk produced by the mother
c) A type of prenatal vitamin
d) The layer of skin covering a newborn
Answer: b) The first milk produced by the mother
21. Which of the following is a common complication of pregnancy-induced hypertension?
a) Preeclampsia
b) Gestational diabetes
c) Intrauterine growth restriction
d) Hyperemesis gravidarum
Answer: a) Preeclampsia
22. At what age is the first dose of measles vaccine typically administered?
a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 9 months
d) 12 months
Answer: c) 9 months
23. What is the normal birth weight for a full-term infant?
a) Less than 2.5 kg
b) 2.5 – 3.5 kg
c) 3.5 – 4.5 kg
d) More than 4.5 kg
Answer: b) 2.5 – 3.5 kg
24. What does IMCI stand for in maternal and child health?
a) Integrated Management of Childhood Illnesses
b) Immediate Mother Care Initiative
c) International Maternity Care Initiative
d) Infant Mortality Control Initiative
Answer: a) Integrated Management of Childhood Illnesses
25. The placenta produces all the following hormones EXCEPT:
a) hCG
b) Progesterone
c) FSH
d) Estrogen
Answer: c) FSH
26. What is the purpose of giving antenatal corticosteroids to a pregnant woman at risk of preterm birth?
a) Prevent infection
b) Stimulate lung maturation in the fetus
c) Reduce maternal blood pressure
d) Delay labor
Answer: b) Stimulate lung maturation in the fetus
27. What is the average duration of labor for a first-time mother?
a) 5-6 hours
b) 10-12 hours
c) 15-20 hours
d) 24-30 hours
Answer: b) 10-12 hours
28. Which of the following methods is recommended to reduce maternal mortality during childbirth?
a) Home delivery without skilled birth attendants
b) Caesarean section for all deliveries
c) Skilled birth attendance
d) Delaying antenatal care
Answer: c) Skilled birth attendance
29. The normal gestational period for a human pregnancy is approximately:
a) 30 weeks
b) 34 weeks
c) 38 weeks
d) 40 weeks
Answer: d) 40 weeks
30. Which of the following is a key indicator of malnutrition in children under 5?
a) Weight-for-height
b) Length-for-age
c) Body Mass Index
d) Weight-for-age
Answer: d) Weight-for-age
31. What is the purpose of maternal tetanus immunization during pregnancy?
a) Prevent neonatal tetanus
b) Prevent maternal anemia
c) Boost milk production
d) Protect against birth asphyxia
Answer: a) Prevent neonatal tetanus
32. Which of the following is an early sign of dehydration in children?
a) Dry skin
b) Low body temperature
c) Sunken eyes
d) Coughing
Answer: c) Sunken eyes
33. The baby-friendly hospital initiative promotes:
a) Exclusive formula feeding
b) Early initiation of breastfeeding
c) Delayed initiation of breastfeeding
d) Mixed feeding
Answer: b) Early initiation of breastfeeding
34. What is the leading cause of neonatal jaundice?
a) Infection
b) Prematurity
c) Breastfeeding
d) Bilirubin buildup
Answer: d) Bilirubin buildup
35. Which vitamin is given to prevent rickets in children?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin E
Answer: c) Vitamin D
36. What is the normal hemoglobin level in pregnant women?
a) Less than 9 g/dL
b) 9-10 g/dL
c) 11-12 g/dL
d) 14-15 g/dL
Answer: c) 11-12 g/dL
**37. Which of the following is a sign of severe acute malnutrition in
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Here are 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on Family Planning and Contraception, with bold statements and proper alignment.
1. What is the primary goal of family planning?
a) Prevent sexually transmitted infections
b) Improve reproductive health
c) Enable individuals to determine the number and spacing of their children
d) Promote gender equality
Answer: c) Enable individuals to determine the number and spacing of their children
2. Which of the following is a permanent method of contraception?
a) Oral contraceptives
b) Tubal ligation
c) Condoms
d) Intrauterine device (IUD)
Answer: b) Tubal ligation
3. Which contraceptive method also helps prevent sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?
a) Oral contraceptives
b) Condoms
c) Intrauterine devices (IUD)
d) Depo-Provera
Answer: b) Condoms
4. The contraceptive pill primarily works by:
a) Blocking sperm
b) Thickening cervical mucus
c) Preventing ovulation
d) Destroying sperm
Answer: c) Preventing ovulation
5. Which hormone is commonly found in most combined oral contraceptives?
a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Androgens
d) Insulin
Answer: a) Estrogen
6. What is the effectiveness rate of male condoms when used correctly?
a) 50%
b) 72%
c) 85%
d) 98%
Answer: d) 98%
7. Which family planning method involves tracking menstrual cycles to determine fertile days?
a) Rhythm method
b) Coitus interruptus
c) IUD
d) Sterilization
Answer: a) Rhythm method
8. How often must the Depo-Provera injection be administered to maintain contraceptive effectiveness?
a) Every month
b) Every 3 months
c) Every 6 months
d) Once a year
Answer: b) Every 3 months
9. What is the key feature of an intrauterine device (IUD)?
a) Prevents sperm from reaching the egg
b) Prevents fertilized eggs from implanting
c) Provides hormones to prevent pregnancy
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
10. Which method of contraception involves the removal of the penis before ejaculation?
a) Coitus interruptus
b) Calendar method
c) Condom
d) Fertility awareness
Answer: a) Coitus interruptus
11. Which of the following is a side effect of hormonal contraceptives?
a) Weight loss
b) Increased bone density
c) Weight gain
d) Increased risk of pregnancy
Answer: c) Weight gain
12. What is the primary function of emergency contraception?
a) Abort an implanted embryo
b) Delay ovulation
c) Destroy sperm
d) Induce menstruation
Answer: b) Delay ovulation
13. Which of the following methods is considered a barrier method of contraception?
a) Birth control pills
b) IUD
c) Diaphragm
d) Hormonal implants
Answer: c) Diaphragm
14. Which hormone is responsible for thickening cervical mucus to prevent sperm from entering the uterus in some contraceptives?
a) Progesterone
b) Estrogen
c) Oxytocin
d) Prolactin
Answer: a) Progesterone
15. Sterilization in women is commonly referred to as:
a) Vasectomy
b) Tubal ligation
c) Hysterectomy
d) Endometrial ablation
Answer: b) Tubal ligation
16. Which of the following contraceptive methods is most effective at preventing pregnancy?
a) Condoms
b) Withdrawal
c) IUD
d) Natural family planning
Answer: c) IUD
17. Male sterilization is known as:
a) Vasectomy
b) Tubal ligation
c) Hysterectomy
d) Orchidectomy
Answer: a) Vasectomy
18. Which contraceptive method is reversible?
a) Vasectomy
b) Tubal ligation
c) Oral contraceptives
d) Hysterectomy
Answer: c) Oral contraceptives
19. Which family planning method is least effective in preventing pregnancy?
a) Condoms
b) Withdrawal
c) Oral contraceptives
d) IUD
Answer: b) Withdrawal
20. How long can a copper intrauterine device (IUD) be effective in preventing pregnancy?
a) 1 year
b) 3 years
c) 5 years
d) 10 years
Answer: d) 10 years
21. Which method of contraception involves using foam, gel, or cream to block sperm from entering the uterus?
a) Diaphragm
b) Spermicide
c) Cervical cap
d) Oral contraceptives
Answer: b) Spermicide
22. What is the primary mechanism by which a hormonal IUD prevents pregnancy?
a) Killing sperm
b) Suppressing ovulation
c) Thickening cervical mucus
d) Blocking the fallopian tubes
Answer: c) Thickening cervical mucus
23. Which of the following is a benefit of using hormonal contraceptives?
a) Protection against STIs
b) Reduced menstrual pain
c) Increased fertility
d) Rapid weight loss
Answer: b) Reduced menstrual pain
24. Which contraceptive method requires no regular action after it is inserted?
a) Birth control patch
b) Condoms
c) Copper IUD
d) Diaphragm
Answer: c) Copper IUD
25. What is the maximum number of days after unprotected sex that emergency contraception can be effective?
a) 1 day
b) 2 days
c) 5 days
d) 7 days
Answer: c) 5 days
26. Which contraceptive method is inserted into the arm and provides long-term pregnancy prevention?
a) Hormonal patch
b) Depo-Provera
c) Hormonal implant
d) Diaphragm
Answer: c) Hormonal implant
27. The lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) of contraception is based on:
a) Hormone injections
b) Ovulation suppression due to breastfeeding
c) Use of barrier methods during breastfeeding
d) Emergency contraception use during breastfeeding
Answer: b) Ovulation suppression due to breastfeeding
28. Which family planning method is appropriate for women who cannot take estrogen?
a) Combined oral contraceptive pill
b) Progestin-only pill
c) Birth control patch
d) Hormonal IUD with estrogen
Answer: b) Progestin-only pill
29. The primary purpose of a diaphragm in contraception is to:
a) Kill sperm
b) Prevent sperm from entering the uterus
c) Release hormones
d) Prevent ovulation
Answer: b) Prevent sperm from entering the uterus
30. Which of the following is a benefit of using condoms?
a) Long-term pregnancy prevention
b) Protection against HIV and other STIs
c) No need for insertion
d) Hormonal regulation
Answer: b) Protection against HIV and other STIs
31. What is the typical failure rate of the withdrawal method?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 20%
d) 25%
Answer: c) 20%
32. What is the purpose of fertility awareness-based methods (FABMs) in family planning?
a) Prevent STIs
b) Detect early pregnancy
c) Identify fertile days for pregnancy avoidance or planning
d) Monitor hormonal levels
Answer: c) Identify fertile days for pregnancy avoidance or planning
33. Which contraceptive method involves a patch worn on the skin that releases hormones?
a) Birth control pills
b) Vaginal ring
c) Birth control patch
d) Depo-Provera
Answer: c) Birth control patch
34. Which family planning method has the potential to be permanent?
a) Hormonal IUD
b) Tubal ligation
c) Diaphragm
d) Oral contraceptives
Answer: b) Tubal ligation
35. Which family planning method requires monthly administration?
a) Depo-Provera
b) Birth control pills
c) Birth control patch
d) Vaginal ring
Answer: d) Vaginal ring
36. What is the minimum time frame before a vasectomy is considered fully effective?
a) 1 week
b) 2 weeks
c) 3 months
d) 6 months
Answer: c) 3 months
37. Which of the following is an advantage of hormonal implants?
a) They require daily action
b) They can prevent pregnancy for up to 3-5 years
c) They protect against STIs
d) They help in weight loss
Answer: b) They can prevent pregnancy for up to 3-5 years
38. In which case might emergency contraception be recommended?
a) Missed birth control pill
b) Unprotected intercourse
c) Condom breakage
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
39. What is the primary action of spermicide in contraception?
a) Blocking sperm from entering the uterus
b) Killing sperm
c) Preventing ovulation
d) Thickening cervical mucus
Answer: b) Killing sperm
40. The combined oral contraceptive pill prevents pregnancy primarily by:
a) Increasing cervical mucus production
b) Suppressing ovulation
c) Destroying sperm
d) Blocking the fallopian tubes
Answer: b) Suppressing ovulation
41. Which contraceptive method is most commonly used by breastfeeding mothers?
a) Combined oral contraceptive pills
b) Progestin-only pills
c) Condoms
d) Vaginal ring
Answer: b) Progestin-only pills
42. Which contraceptive method is an injectable form of birth control?
a) Oral contraceptives
b) Diaphragm
c) Depo-Provera
d) IUD
Answer: c) Depo-Provera
43. What is the effectiveness rate of intrauterine devices (IUDs)?
a) 75%
b) 85%
c) 99%
d) 100%
Answer: c) 99%
44. The hormone in progestin-only birth control pills primarily:
a) Suppresses ovulation
b) Thickens cervical mucus
c) Kills sperm
d) Blocks sperm from entering the uterus
Answer: b) Thickens cervical mucus
45. A vasectomy prevents pregnancy by:
a) Blocking sperm production
b) Blocking sperm release
c) Suppressing testosterone
d) Killing sperm
Answer: b) Blocking sperm release
46. Which of the following is a key benefit of the lactational amenorrhea method?
a) Requires additional contraceptives
b) Prevents ovulation in breastfeeding mothers
c) Is permanent
d) Provides lifelong contraception
Answer: b) Prevents ovulation in breastfeeding mothers
47. What is the failure rate of typical condom use?
a) 2%
b) 15%
c) 18%
d) 25%
Answer: c) 18%
48. How long after a missed period should a pregnancy test be conducted to confirm pregnancy?
a) 1 day
b) 7 days
c) 10 days
d) 14 days
Answer: d) 14 days
49. What is the primary mechanism of action for birth control patches?
a) Preventing sperm from reaching the egg
b) Releasing hormones that suppress ovulation
c) Thickening cervical mucus
d) Destroying sperm
Answer: b) Releasing hormones that suppress ovulation
50. Which of the following methods is non-hormonal?
a) IUD (copper)
b) Birth control patch
c) Depo-Provera
d) Vaginal ring
Answer: a) IUD (copper)