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Preoperative and Postoperative Care MCQs

1. The main purpose of preoperative assessment is to:

(A) Diagnose surgical disease


(B) Optimize patient’s condition before surgery


(C) Reduce surgical cost


(D) Shorten hospital stay



2. ASA physical status classification is used to assess:

(A) Cardiac risk only


(B) Overall preoperative fitness


(C) Pulmonary function


(D) Postoperative pain



3. A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life falls under:

(A) ASA I


(B) ASA II


(C) ASA III


(D) ASA IV



4. The most important factor for prevention of postoperative pulmonary complications is:

(A) Chest physiotherapy


(B) Adequate analgesia


(C) Oxygen therapy


(D) Preoperative antibiotics



5. Which electrolyte imbalance most commonly causes arrhythmias in the postoperative period?

(A) Hypocalcemia


(B) Hypokalemia


(C) Hypernatremia


(D) Hypermagnesemia



6. The most common cause of postoperative fever within 24 hours is:

(A) Pulmonary embolism


(B) Atelectasis


(C) Wound infection


(D) Urinary tract infection



7. Wound infection usually appears after:

(A) 24–48 hours


(B) 3–7 days


(C) 10–14 days


(D) Immediately after surgery



8. Postoperative pulmonary embolism typically occurs after:

(A) 6–12 hours


(B) 1–3 days


(C) 5–7 days


(D) 10–14 days



9. Prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) includes:

(A) Early ambulation


(B) Low molecular weight heparin


(C) Compression stockings


(D) All of the above



10. The most common site of thrombus formation leading to pulmonary embolism is:

(A) Superficial veins


(B) Femoral vein


(C) Popliteal vein


(D) Deep veins of lower limb



11. A clean surgical wound is defined as:

(A) Infected wound


(B) Non-traumatic wound with no entry into hollow viscus


(C) Wound with contamination


(D) Wound with necrosis



12. Prophylactic antibiotics are most effective when given:

(A) 12 hours before surgery


(B) At induction of anesthesia


(C) Postoperatively


(D) 24 hours before surgery



13. The most common electrolyte disturbance after thyroid surgery is:

(A) Hypokalemia


(B) Hypernatremia


(C) Hypocalcemia


(D) Hyponatremia



14. The most common complication of blood transfusion is:

(A) Hemolysis


(B) Febrile non-hemolytic reaction


(C) Sepsis


(D) Graft vs. host disease



15. The best method to assess fluid replacement in postoperative patients is:

(A) Urine output


(B) Blood pressure


(C) Pulse rate


(D) Central venous pressure



16. Minimum urine output required in adults postoperatively is:

(A) 0.25 ml/kg/hr


(B) 0.5 ml/kg/hr


(C) 1.0 ml/kg/hr


(D) 2.0 ml/kg/hr



17. Postoperative paralytic ileus is most commonly caused by:

(A) Electrolyte imbalance


(B) Peritonitis


(C) Drugs like opioids


(D) All of the above



18. The first sign of hypovolemia in postoperative patients is:

(A) Tachycardia


(B) Hypotension


(C) Oliguria


(D) Restlessness



19. Which is the most reliable parameter for diagnosing postoperative shock?

(A) Blood pressure


(B) Pulse rate


(C) Urine output


(D) Mental status



20. The most common cause of postoperative urinary retention is:

(A) Anesthesia


(B) Urethral stricture


(C) Bladder stone


(D) Infection



21. Epidural anesthesia commonly causes:

(A) Hypertension


(B) Hypotension


(C) Tachycardia


(D) Arrhythmias



22. Postoperative nausea and vomiting are most effectively prevented with:

(A) Proton pump inhibitors


(B) Ondansetron


(C) Antacids


(D) Antibiotics



23. The most common pulmonary complication after abdominal surgery is:

(A) Atelectasis


(B) Pneumothorax


(C) Bronchiectasis


(D) ARDS



24. In postoperative care, incentive spirometry is used to:

(A) Prevent pulmonary embolism


(B) Prevent atelectasis


(C) Increase cardiac output


(D) Reduce wound infection



25. The most common cause of postoperative jaundice is:

(A) Viral hepatitis


(B) Drug-induced liver injury


(C) Hemolysis


(D) Sepsis



26. The earliest sign of wound infection is:

(A) Pus discharge


(B) Redness and warmth


(C) Fever


(D) Wound dehiscence



27. The most common organism causing surgical site infection is:

(A) Streptococcus


(B) Staphylococcus aureus


(C) Pseudomonas


(D) Klebsiella



28. The most serious complication of wound infection is:

(A) Abscess


(B) Septicemia


(C) Cellulitis


(D) Seroma



29. Dehiscence of surgical wound usually occurs:

(A) Within 24 hours


(B) On 3rd–7th postoperative day


(C) After 2 weeks


(D) Immediately after surgery



30. The most important factor in preventing wound dehiscence is:

(A) Proper suture material


(B) Good surgical technique


(C) Antibiotics


(D) Adequate analgesia



31. A patient with fever, tachycardia, hypotension, and wound discharge on 4th postoperative day is most likely suffering from:

(A) Pulmonary embolism


(B) Septicemia


(C) Wound infection


(D) Myocardial infarction



32. The most common cause of postoperative delirium in elderly is:

(A) Hypoxia


(B) Hypoglycemia


(C) Infection


(D) Drugs



33. The most common postoperative electrolyte disturbance in elderly is:

(A) Hyponatremia


(B) Hyperkalemia


(C) Hypokalemia


(D) Hypernatremia



34. A patient develops fever on day 1 after surgery. The most likely cause is:

(A) Pulmonary atelectasis


(B) Wound infection


(C) Catheter infection


(D) DVT



35. Postoperative pain is best managed with:

(A) Antibiotics


(B) NSAIDs and opioids


(C) Steroids


(D) Antihistamines



36. Early ambulation in postoperative patients reduces:

(A) Pulmonary complications


(B) Thromboembolism


(C) Muscle wasting


(D) All of the above



37. Which vitamin is essential for wound healing?

(A) Vitamin A


(B) Vitamin B12


(C) Vitamin C


(D) Vitamin D



38. The most common cause of postoperative sepsis is:

(A) Wound infection


(B) Catheter infection


(C) IV line infection


(D) Pneumonia



39. Postoperative pulmonary embolism is best diagnosed by:

(A) Chest X-ray


(B) D-dimer test


(C) CT pulmonary angiography


(D) ECG



40. Which is the safest period for elective surgery during pregnancy?

(A) First trimester


(B) Second trimester


(C) Third trimester


(D) Anytime



41. A hypertensive patient for surgery should ideally:

(A) Stop antihypertensive drugs


(B) Continue antihypertensive drugs


(C) Take only diuretics


(D) Avoid surgery



42. The most common cause of postoperative myocardial infarction is:

(A) Hypoxia


(B) Hypovolemia


(C) Electrolyte imbalance


(D) Tachyarrhythmia



43. Malignant hyperthermia is triggered by:

(A) Thiopentone


(B) Halothane and succinylcholine


(C) Nitrous oxide


(D) Ketamine



44. The drug of choice for malignant hyperthermia is:

(A) Atropine


(B) Dantrolene


(C) Diazepam


(D) Thiopentone



45. The most common cause of death in the early postoperative period is:

(A) Hemorrhage


(B) Pulmonary embolism


(C) Myocardial infarction


(D) Septicemia



46. The most common cause of death in the late postoperative period is:

(A) Septicemia


(B) Pulmonary embolism


(C) Wound infection


(D) Renal failure



47. The safest suture material for intestinal anastomosis is:

(A) Silk


(B) Nylon


(C) Vicryl


(D) Catgut



48. The most common cause of postoperative hypoxemia is:

(A) Atelectasis


(B) ARDS


(C) Pulmonary embolism


(D) Pneumonia



49. Postoperative ARDS is most commonly caused by:

(A) Aspiration


(B) Sepsis


(C) Trauma


(D) All of the above



50. Which is the best marker of nutritional status before surgery?

(A) Hemoglobin


(B) Albumin


(C) BMI


(D) Cholesterol



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