PAST PAPER STAFF NURSE (BS-16) + (Special Health Sector Reforms Allowance) PPSC [SOLVED]
1. Which of the following is a primary role of a nurse?
A) Diagnosis of diseases
B) Patient education
C) Prescribing medication
D) Conducting surgeries
Answer: B) Patient education
2. What is the normal range of adult body temperature?
A) 95°F – 97°F
B) 98°F – 100°F
C) 97°F – 99°F
D) 99°F – 101°F
Answer: C) 97°F – 99°F
3. What does CPR stand for?
A) Cardiac Pulmonary Resuscitation
B) Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
C) Cardiac Preservation Resuscitation
D) Cardiovascular Pulmonary Resuscitation
Answer: B) Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
4. The appropriate needle gauge for administering intramuscular injections in adults is:
A) 18-20
B) 21-23
C) 24-26
D) 27-29
Answer: B) 21-23
5. What is the first step in the nursing process?
A) Planning
B) Assessment
C) Implementation
D) Evaluation
Answer: B) Assessment
6. Which medication is commonly used to treat hypertension?
A) Ibuprofen
B) Lisinopril
C) Amoxicillin
D) Prednisone
Answer: B) Lisinopril
7. What is the primary purpose of a nursing care plan?
A) To schedule appointments
B) To provide financial information
C) To outline patient care and interventions
D) To determine a patient’s insurance coverage
Answer: C) To outline patient care and interventions
8. A nurse is assessing a patient’s pulse. Which site is most commonly used?
A) Radial
B) Femoral
C) Popliteal
D) Carotid
Answer: A) Radial
9. Which of the following is a sign of infection?
A) Low blood pressure
B) Fever
C) Decreased heart rate
D) Pale skin
Answer: B) Fever
10. What is the recommended position for a patient recovering from surgery?
A) Prone
B) Supine
C) Lateral
D) Fowler’s
Answer: D) Fowler’s
11. Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B12
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin K
Answer: D) Vitamin K
12. The nurse must monitor a patient for signs of anaphylaxis after administering:
A) Antibiotics
B) Antihistamines
C) Corticosteroids
D) Analgesics
Answer: A) Antibiotics
13. Which of the following is NOT a type of nursing intervention?
A) Independent
B) Dependent
C) Interdependent
D) Supervised
Answer: D) Supervised
14. A patient experiencing chest pain should be assessed for which condition first?
A) Anxiety
B) Myocardial Infarction
C) Pulmonary Embolism
D) Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease
Answer: B) Myocardial Infarction
15. What is the purpose of hand hygiene in nursing practice?
A) To keep hands looking clean
B) To prevent the spread of infection
C) To comply with hospital policy
D) To reduce paperwork
Answer: B) To prevent the spread of infection
16. The nurse’s role in patient education includes:
A) Only providing written materials
B) Assessing the patient’s understanding
C) Telling patients what to do without explanation
D) Ignoring patient concerns
Answer: B) Assessing the patient’s understanding
17. Which of the following actions should a nurse take first in an emergency?
A) Call for help
B) Check the patient’s airway
C) Assess vital signs
D) Begin CPR
Answer: B) Check the patient’s airway
18. The term “bradycardia” refers to:
A) Rapid heart rate
B) Slow heart rate
C) Irregular heart rate
D) Normal heart rate
Answer: B) Slow heart rate
19. Which of the following assessments is most critical for a patient with heart failure?
A) Skin integrity
B) Daily weight
C) Bowel sounds
D) Pain level
Answer: B) Daily weight
20. The correct order of the nursing process is:
A) Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation
B) Diagnosis, Assessment, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation
C) Assessment, Planning, Diagnosis, Implementation, Evaluation
D) Evaluation, Implementation, Planning, Diagnosis, Assessment
Answer: A) Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation
21. Which of the following conditions is characterized by high blood sugar levels?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Hypertension
D) Hypotension
Answer: B) Hyperglycemia
22. The normal respiratory rate for adults is:
A) 10-15 breaths per minute
B) 12-20 breaths per minute
C) 20-25 breaths per minute
D) 30-35 breaths per minute
Answer: B) 12-20 breaths per minute
23. Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid medications?
A) Diarrhea
B) Constipation
C) Insomnia
D) Hypertension
Answer: B) Constipation
24. The primary purpose of a patient’s medical history is to:
A) Limit the patient’s rights
B) Gather information for diagnosis and treatment
C) Determine insurance eligibility
D) Evaluate the nurse’s performance
Answer: B) Gather information for diagnosis and treatment
25. Which type of isolation is used for patients with airborne diseases?
A) Contact isolation
B) Droplet isolation
C) Airborne isolation
D) Protective isolation
Answer: C) Airborne isolation
26. The most common route for medication administration is:
A) Intravenous
B) Oral
C) Subcutaneous
D) Intramuscular
Answer: B) Oral
27. What is the recommended method for assessing a patient’s level of consciousness?
A) Glascow Coma Scale
B) APGAR score
C) BP check
D) Pain scale
Answer: A) Glascow Coma Scale
28. In which situation should a nurse use gloves?
A) When touching a clean bed
B) When taking vital signs
C) When handling blood or bodily fluids
D) When talking to a patient
Answer: C) When handling blood or bodily fluids
29. The term “systolic” refers to:
A) The heart at rest
B) The pressure during heart contraction
C) The average blood pressure
D) The pressure during heart relaxation
Answer: B) The pressure during heart contraction
30. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication. What is the first action?
A) Check the patient’s identification
B) Administer the medication
C) Document the administration
D) Prepare the medication
Answer: A) Check the patient’s identification
31. What is the primary responsibility of a midwife?
A) Delivering babies
B) Performing surgeries
C) Conducting medical examinations
D) Administering medications
Answer: A) Delivering babies
32. The Apgar score is used to assess:
A) Maternal health
B) Newborn’s health
C) Surgical outcomes
D) Patient’s pain
Answer: B) Newborn’s health
33. Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating blood sugar levels?
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Cortisol
D) Adrenaline
Answer: A) Insulin
34. What is the main purpose of prenatal care?
A) To diagnose congenital disorders
B) To monitor and promote the health of the mother and fetus
C) To provide postpartum support
D) To prepare for childbirth only
Answer: B) To monitor and promote the health of the mother and fetus
35. Which of the following is NOT a sign of dehydration?
A) Dry mouth
B) Increased urination
C) Dizziness
D) Dark urine
Answer: B) Increased urination
36. What is the maximum amount of time a tourniquet should be applied?
A) 5 minutes
B) 15 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) 60 minutes
Answer: B) 15 minutes
37. Which nursing theory emphasizes the importance of a patient’s environment?
A) Orem’s Self-Care Theory
B) Nightingale’s Environmental Theory
C) Peplau’s Interpersonal Relations Theory
D) Roy’s Adaptation Model
Answer: B) Nightingale’s Environmental Theory
38. A patient with a history of asthma is experiencing wheezing. What should the nurse do first?
A) Administer oxygen
B) Call the physician
C) Assess lung sounds
D) Place the patient in a sitting position
Answer: C) Assess lung sounds
39. Which of the following is a component of informed consent?
A) Patient understanding
B) Doctor’s signature
C) Patient’s financial status
D) Insurance approval
Answer: A) Patient understanding
40. What is the purpose of the nursing diagnosis?
A) To identify a patient’s medical condition
B) To create a treatment plan
C) To provide information to insurance companies
D) To determine hospital stay duration
Answer: B) To create a treatment plan
41. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing hypertension?
A) Regular exercise
B) Low sodium diet
C) Family history
D) High potassium intake
Answer: C) Family history
42. A common complication of immobility is:
A) Hypertension
B) Muscle atrophy
C) Increased appetite
D) Hyperactivity
Answer: B) Muscle atrophy
43. In which trimester does quickening typically occur?
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) All trimesters
Answer: B) Second
44. What is the recommended action if a patient refuses a medication?
A) Force the patient to take it
B) Document the refusal and inform the physician
C) Ignore the refusal
D) Give the medication anyway
Answer: B) Document the refusal and inform the physician
45. A patient presents with jaundice. What does this indicate?
A) Liver dysfunction
B) Heart failure
C) Kidney dysfunction
D) Lung disease
Answer: A) Liver dysfunction
46. Which of the following is a sign of respiratory distress?
A) Bradycardia
B) Shallow breathing
C) Slow speech
D) Elevated temperature
Answer: B) Shallow breathing
47. Which assessment tool is used to assess the risk of falls in the elderly?
A) Glascow Coma Scale
B) Morse Fall Scale
C) Braden Scale
D) APGAR Score
Answer: B) Morse Fall Scale
48. What is the recommended frequency for checking blood glucose in a diabetic patient?
A) Once a month
B) Twice a day
C) Before and after meals
D) Every hour
Answer: C) Before and after meals
49. What is the primary concern for a nurse when caring for a patient with a chest tube?
A) Maintaining sterile technique
B) Preventing kinking of the tube
C) Educating the patient
D) Monitoring blood pressure
Answer: B) Preventing kinking of the tube
50. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?
A) Administering medication
B) Placing the patient in a quiet room
C) Encouraging deep breathing
D) Performing CPR
Answer: C) Encouraging deep breathing
51. The most appropriate way to assess the effectiveness of pain relief measures is by:
A) Observing the patient’s facial expressions
B) Asking the patient to rate their pain
C) Checking the patient’s vital signs
D) Reviewing the patient’s medical history
Answer: B) Asking the patient to rate their pain
52. Which of the following vaccines is recommended during pregnancy?
A) MMR
B) Influenza
C) Varicella
D) HPV
Answer: B) Influenza
53. What is the best way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?
A) Wearing gloves only
B) Regular hand washing
C) Disinfecting equipment once a week
D) Using hand sanitizer only
Answer: B) Regular hand washing
54. A nurse is teaching a patient about the signs of labor. Which sign indicates labor is imminent?
A) Braxton Hicks contractions
B) Lightening
C) Rupture of membranes
D) Back pain
Answer: C) Rupture of membranes
55. Which type of shock is characterized by low blood volume?
A) Cardiogenic
B) Septic
C) Hypovolemic
D) Neurogenic
Answer: C) Hypovolemic
56. In patient education, which teaching method is most effective?
A) Lectures
B) Demonstrations
C) Reading materials
D) Videos
Answer: B) Demonstrations
57. Which of the following is a priority action for a nurse caring for a patient with a new cast?
A) Assessing skin color and temperature
B) Providing pain medication
C) Teaching cast care
D) Monitoring vital signs
Answer: A) Assessing skin color and temperature
58. What is the primary purpose of a postpartum assessment?
A) To determine a patient’s readiness for discharge
B) To monitor the mother’s recovery and well-being
C) To assess the newborn’s health
D) To evaluate the father’s involvement
Answer: B) To monitor the mother’s recovery and well-being
59. Which dietary change is recommended for a patient with heart failure?
A) Increased sodium intake
B) Decreased fluid intake
C) High protein diet
D) Low-fat diet
Answer: B) Decreased fluid intake
60. A patient presents with a severe headache and photophobia. What should the nurse suspect?
A) Tension headache
B) Migraine
C) Meningitis
D) Sinusitis
Answer: C) Meningitis
61. The nurse should educate the patient about the risks of smoking, which include:
A) Decreased energy levels
B) Improved lung function
C) Enhanced circulation
D) Increased risk of cancer
Answer: D) Increased risk of cancer
62. What is the purpose of a midwife during labor?
A) To provide emotional support and guidance
B) To perform all medical procedures
C) To take charge of the delivery room
D) To educate family members
Answer: A) To provide emotional support and guidance
63. Which of the following is a common complication of diabetes?
A) Asthma
B) Kidney disease
C) Hypertension
D) Osteoporosis
Answer: B) Kidney disease
64. The nurse must report which of the following vital signs as abnormal?
A) Temperature 98.6°F
B) Pulse 110 bpm
C) Respiratory rate 18 breaths/min
D) Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg
Answer: B) Pulse 110 bpm
65. Which assessment finding is a priority in a patient with a history of COPD?
A) Wheezing
B) Coughing
C) Shortness of breath
D) Fever
Answer: C) Shortness of breath
66. What is the purpose of postpartum teaching for new parents?
A) To provide only medical information
B) To ensure understanding of newborn care and recovery
C) To evaluate the family’s financial status
D) To limit parental involvement
Answer: B) To ensure understanding of newborn care and recovery
67. A nurse is caring for a patient with a pressure ulcer. Which intervention is most important?
A) Changing the dressing
B) Regularly repositioning the patient
C) Administering pain medication
D) Keeping the ulcer dry
Answer: B) Regularly repositioning the patient
68. The term “tachycardia” refers to:
A) Slow heart rate
B) Normal heart rate
C) Rapid heart rate
D) Irregular heart rate
Answer: C) Rapid heart rate
69. Which of the following is an important step in medication administration?
A) Preparing medication in advance
B) Documenting after administration
C) Verifying patient identity
D) Disregarding allergies
Answer: C) Verifying patient identity
70. Which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia?
A) Increased thirst
B) Excessive urination
C) Confusion
D) Blurred vision
Answer: C) Confusion
71. A nurse is assessing a patient for dehydration. Which sign would be most indicative?
A) Weight gain
B) Increased skin turgor
C) Dry mucous membranes
D) Decreased heart rate
Answer: C) Dry mucous membranes
72. Which assessment finding is expected in a patient with liver cirrhosis?
A) Jaundice
B) Increased appetite
C) Normal temperature
D) High blood pressure
Answer: A) Jaundice
73. What is the main purpose of prenatal vitamins?
A) To prevent morning sickness
B) To ensure adequate nutrition for mother and fetus
C) To increase fetal movement
D) To control weight gain
Answer: B) To ensure adequate nutrition for mother and fetus
74. Which lab value is commonly monitored in patients on anticoagulant therapy?
A) Platelet count
B) Prothrombin time (PT)
C) Hemoglobin
D) Blood glucose
Answer: B) Prothrombin time (PT)
75. A nurse is teaching about safe medication storage. Which of the following is important?
A) Storing medications in the bathroom
B) Keeping medications in their original containers
C) Sharing medications with family members
D) Exposing medications to sunlight
Answer: B) Keeping medications in their original containers
76. The Apgar score is used to assess:
A) Maternal health
B) Newborn health
C) Fetal heart rate
D) Labor progression
Answer: B) Newborn health
77. Which nursing intervention is essential for a patient with an indwelling catheter?
A) Routine catheter changes every day
B) Monitoring for signs of infection
C) Avoiding patient education
D) Limiting fluid intake
Answer: B) Monitoring for signs of infection
78. A patient experiencing chest pain should be assessed for:
A) Allergies
B) Vital signs
C) Recent travel history
D) Family history of diabetes
Answer: B) Vital signs
79. Which of the following is a common symptom of postpartum depression?
A) Increased energy
B) Excessive sleep
C) Feelings of sadness or hopelessness
D) Decreased appetite
Answer: C) Feelings of sadness or hopelessness
80. The primary purpose of prenatal care is to:
A) Diagnose complications
B) Monitor maternal and fetal health
C) Educate about parenting
D) Schedule deliveries
Answer: B) Monitor maternal and fetal health