MCQs on Punjab Enforcement and Regulation Bill 2024
1. What is the purpose of the Punjab Enforcement and Regulation Act 2024?
a) To regulate trade in Punjab
b) To establish the Punjab Enforcement and Regulatory Authority for enforcement of special laws
c) To introduce new tax regulations
d) To oversee election processes
Answer: b) To establish the Punjab Enforcement and Regulatory Authority for enforcement of special laws
2. To which area does the Punjab Enforcement and Regulation Act 2024 apply?
a) Only to Lahore
b) To the entire Punjab province
c) To selected cities in Punjab
d) To rural areas only
Answer: b) To the entire Punjab province
3. Who is designated as the Chairperson of the Punjab Enforcement and Regulatory Authority?
a) Chief Secretary, Punjab
b) Chief Minister, Punjab
c) Director General of the Authority
d) Speaker of the Punjab Assembly
Answer: b) Chief Minister, Punjab
4. What is the role of the “Enforcement Station” under the Act?
a) To register businesses
b) To oversee elections
c) To serve as a designated location for enforcement proceedings
d) To act as a law-making body
Answer: c) To serve as a designated location for enforcement proceedings
5. Who appoints the Director General of the Punjab Enforcement and Regulatory Authority?
a) Speaker of the Punjab Assembly
b) Chief Minister of Punjab
c) Home Secretary
d) High Court of Punjab
Answer: b) Chief Minister of Punjab
6. What is the role of a “Hearing Officer” under this Act?
a) To conduct trials in criminal cases
b) To oversee tax collection
c) To determine penalties and enforcement actions under the Act
d) To regulate public gatherings
Answer: c) To determine penalties and enforcement actions under the Act
7. What is the composition of the District Enforcement and Regulatory Board?
a) Members of the Provincial Assembly only
b) The Deputy Commissioner, District Heads of Departments, and legal representatives
c) Local business owners and traders
d) Only representatives from the Home Department
Answer: b) The Deputy Commissioner, District Heads of Departments, and legal representatives
8. Who can be an independent member of the Authority?
a) Any public officeholder in the last six months
b) Any person convicted of a criminal offense
c) A professional with expertise in law, administration, or corporate sectors
d) A government employee
Answer: c) A professional with expertise in law, administration, or corporate sectors
9. How long is the tenure of an independent member of the Authority?
a) One year
b) Three years
c) Five years
d) Six months
Answer: b) Three years
10. What is the quorum for a meeting of the Punjab Enforcement and Regulatory Authority?
a) One-third of the total members
b) Half of the total members
c) Two-thirds of the total members
d) All members must be present
Answer: b) Half of the total members
11. What is the primary role of the “Authorized Officer” under the Act?
a) Conduct enforcement proceedings and issue penalties
b) Serve as a government spokesperson
c) Approve business licenses
d) Conduct elections in Punjab
Answer: a) Conduct enforcement proceedings and issue penalties
12. What is the function of the Selection Panel under this Act?
a) To select the Chairperson of the Authority
b) To select independent members for the Authority
c) To regulate property transactions
d) To oversee district-level enforcement activities
Answer: b) To select independent members for the Authority
13. What does “Enforcement Costs” refer to in the Act?
a) The cost of running the Authority
b) Fines imposed on businesses
c) Costs determined by the Hearing Officer for restoring violations
d) The salaries of enforcement officers
Answer: c) Costs determined by the Hearing Officer for restoring violations
14. What is a key responsibility of the District Enforcement and Regulatory Board?
a) To conduct court trials
b) To coordinate and supervise enforcement of special laws at the district level
c) To issue new business permits
d) To regulate educational institutions
Answer: b) To coordinate and supervise enforcement of special laws at the district level
15. Who has the power to appoint Enforcement Officers under this Act?
a) Punjab High Court
b) The Punjab Enforcement and Regulatory Authority
c) The Speaker of the Punjab Assembly
d) Local Government Department
Answer: b) The Punjab Enforcement and Regulatory Authority
16. Who is eligible to be appointed as a Hearing Officer under the Act?
a) Any officer of the police department
b) Any officer of Pakistan Administrative Service or Provincial Management Service of BPS 17 or above
c) Any government employee
d) Any private lawyer
Answer: b) Any officer of Pakistan Administrative Service or Provincial Management Service of BPS 17 or above
17. What is NOT a matter that can be brought before the Hearing Officer?
a) Fine imposed by Enforcement Officer
b) Confiscation of articles, carts, or vehicles
c) Criminal cases unrelated to enforcement matters
d) Sealing of any premises
Answer: c) Criminal cases unrelated to enforcement matters
18. Which of the following is a power of the Hearing Officer?
a) Determine whether an offence occurred
b) Conduct criminal trials
c) Enact new laws
d) Issue arrest warrants independently
Answer: a) Determine whether an offence occurred
19. What can the Hearing Officer do in case of a successful representation?
a) Increase the penalty
b) Refund the fine imposed by the Enforcement Officer
c) Dismiss the case without a decision
d) Transfer the case to a higher court
Answer: b) Refund the fine imposed by the Enforcement Officer
20. What factors must the Hearing Officer consider while determining penalties?
a) Gravity and duration of the offence
b) Offender’s political affiliation
c) Family background
d) Personal wealth
Answer: a) Gravity and duration of the offence
21. Who is responsible for making rules for the hearing and representation process?
a) The local magistrate
b) The Government
c) The Enforcement Officer
d) The police department
Answer: b) The Government
22. Under the Act, hearings shall be:
a) Strictly formal and follow criminal procedure laws
b) Informal and summarily conducted
c) Conducted with a jury
d) Held only in high courts
Answer: b) Informal and summarily conducted
23. What type of evidence may be presented at a hearing?
a) Only written evidence
b) Only oral evidence
c) Written and oral evidence
d) No evidence is required
Answer: c) Written and oral evidence
24. Where can an Enforcement Station be established?
a) Any police station
b) Any notified place or premises excluding police stations
c) Only in courts
d) Only within government offices
Answer: b) Any notified place or premises excluding police stations
25. Who is the in-charge of an Enforcement Station?
a) Hearing Officer
b) Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer
c) Investigation Officer
d) Enforcement Officer
Answer: b) Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer
26. Under the Act, an Enforcement Officer can arrest a person if:
A) They are found loitering in a public place
B) There is credible information or reasonable suspicion of their involvement in an offence
C) They refuse to provide identification when asked
D) They argue with an official
Answer: B) There is credible information or reasonable suspicion of their involvement in an offence
27. Who is responsible for maintaining records of arrests under this Act?
A) Investigation Officer
B) Hearing Officer
C) Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer
D) Magistrate
Answer: C) Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer
28. How soon must a person arrested by an Enforcement Officer be produced before a Magistrate?
A) Within 12 hours
B) Within 48 hours
C) Within 24 hours
D) Within a week
Answer: C) Within 24 hours
29. What is the primary purpose of public nuisance laws under the Act?
A) To restrict public gatherings
B) To regulate private property use
C) To prevent illegal acts causing annoyance, danger, or obstruction to the public
D) To increase government revenue
Answer: C) To prevent illegal acts causing annoyance, danger, or obstruction to the public
30. Who can file a complaint about a public nuisance?
A) Only a government official
B) Any person directly or indirectly aggrieved
C) Only the owner of the affected property
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Any person directly or indirectly aggrieved
31. What is an EPO in the context of public nuisance enforcement?
A) Emergency Prosecution Order
B) Enforcement Penalty Order
C) Environmental Protection Order
D) Enforcement Prevention Order
Answer: B) Enforcement Penalty Order
32. If an offender does not comply with an EPO, what action can the Enforcement Officer take?
A) Remove the nuisance using necessary force
B) Impose and recover fines
C) Confiscate goods or seal premises
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
33. What authority does the Hearing Officer have regarding an Absolute Order?
A) Modify or cancel the order
B) Enforce the order directly
C) Change the law governing the nuisance
D) Ignore the offender’s appeal
Answer: A) Modify or cancel the order
34. What is defined as “Encroachment” under the Act?
A) The unauthorized occupation or use of State property
B) Any legal construction on public land
C) Temporary use of land for personal purposes
D) Any change in land boundaries
Answer: A) The unauthorized occupation or use of State property
35. What is NOT a mode of delivering notices under the Act?
A) Personal service
B) Mailing through courier
C) Social media posting
D) Public notice in a newspaper
Answer: C) Social media posting
36. If an offender refuses to sign an acknowledgment of a notice, what happens?
A) The notice becomes invalid
B) The notice must be reissued
C) Footage from a bodycam is considered sufficient proof of service
D) The offender is automatically fined
Answer: C) Footage from a bodycam is considered sufficient proof of service
37. Which of the following is NOT an action that the Enforcement Officer can take against encroachments?
A) Sealing the premises
B) Imposing fines
C) Confiscating goods
D) Selling the property without legal process
Answer: D) Selling the property without legal process
38. What happens if the proceeds from the auction of confiscated materials exceed the cost of enforcement?
A) The extra amount is retained by the government
B) The amount is refunded to the offender
C) The amount is donated to a public fund
D) The amount is split between the Enforcement Officer and the Authority
Answer: B) The amount is refunded to the offender
39. Under which circumstances can an offender be arrested for public nuisance?
A) Default on fines
B) Repeated offences
C) Obstruction of an Enforcement Officer
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
40. Which of the following is a correct step in removing an immovable encroachment?
A) The Hearing Officer must issue a Removal Order
B) The offender is evicted without prior notice
C) The Magistrate directly orders the removal
D) The government waits for the offender to vacate voluntarily
Answer: A) The Hearing Officer must issue a Removal Order
41. What is the maximum imprisonment for committing an offence under Section 53 of the Act?
A) Three months
B) Six months
C) One year
D) Two years
Answer: Six months
42. What is the maximum fine for an offence under Section 53?
A) Rs. 50,000
B) Rs. 100,000
C) Rs. 200,000
D) Rs. 300,000
Answer: Rs. 300,000
43. If an offence is committed by a company, who may be held liable apart from the company itself?
A) Only the director
B) The director, manager, secretary, or other officer responsible
C) Only the manager
D) No individual can be held liable
Answer: The director, manager, secretary, or other officer responsible
44. Under Section 55, what punishment applies to a person falsely impersonating an officer?
A) Punishment under Section 170 of the Pakistan Penal Code
B) Punishment under Section 53 of this Act
C) A fine of Rs. 500,000
D) A warning notice only
Answer: Punishment under Section 170 of the Pakistan Penal Code
45. What constitutes misuse of authority by an officer under Section 56?
A) Making excessive use of enforcement powers
B) Conducting searches without lawful authority
C) Accepting bribes
D) All of the above
Answer: All of the above
46. What is the maximum imprisonment for an officer guilty of misuse of authority under Section 56?
A) Three months
B) Six months
C) One year
D) Two years
Answer: Six months
47. Who can initiate an inquiry under Section 57?
A) The Board
B) The Hearing Officer
C) The Sub-Divisional Enforcement Officer
D) All of the above
Answer: All of the above
48. Under Section 57, what power does the Inquiry Officer have during an inquiry?
A) Power to summon and enforce attendance of any person
B) Power to examine witnesses on oath
C) Power to compel the production of documents
D) All of the above
Answer: All of the above
49. Under Section 58, all offences under this Act are considered:
A) Bailable and non-cognizable
B) Cognizable and non-bailable
C) Compoundable
D) Subject to civil penalties only
Answer: Cognizable and non-bailable
50. Who has the authority to register an FIR under Section 58?
A) Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer
B) Inquiry Officer
C) Local Police
D) Any citizen
Answer: Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer
51. Who is responsible for sending a report regarding the costs incurred for enforcement purposes?
A) Hearing Officer
B) Enforcement Officer
C) Investigation Officer
D) Auditor General
Answer: Enforcement Officer
52. Who certifies the enforcement and costs incurred before approval?
A) Hearing Officer
B) Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer
C) Auditor General
D) Inquiry Officer
Answer: Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer
53. How is the cost of enforcement recovered if the offender does not pay?
A) Through bank deductions
B) Through auction or sale of confiscated goods
C) Through a government grant
D) By deducting from the Authority’s Fund
Answer: Through auction or sale of confiscated goods
54. If the cost of enforcement remains unsatisfied, how is it recovered?
A) As arrears of land revenue
B) By taking legal action against the offender
C) By deducting from the offender’s salary
D) By imposing additional fines
Answer: As arrears of land revenue
55. Who may approve advance withdrawals for enforcement costs?
A) Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer
B) Hearing Officer
C) Inquiry Officer
D) Finance Secretary
Answer: Hearing Officer
56. How can the Investigation Officer receive investigation costs?
A) As prescribed by the Authority
B) By submitting a request to the Auditor General
C) Through a direct deduction from the offender
D) By requesting a government grant
Answer: As prescribed by the Authority
57. Who can be rewarded for meritorious services under Section 75?
A) Any government employee
B) Any employee of the Authority
C) Only senior officers of the Authority
D) Only Enforcement Officers
Answer: Any employee of the Authority
58. What type of compensation may be given to an employee under Section 75?
A) A promotion in rank
B) A compensation amount for loss of health or life
C) A reduction in working hours
D) An exemption from duties
Answer: A compensation amount for loss of health or life
59. Who may receive a reward for successful enforcement and recovery?
A) A Whistle-blower
B) The offender
C) The Auditor General
D) The Finance Minister
Answer: A Whistle-blower
60. When can a fine be refunded under Section 77?
A) When an appeal or representation is successful
B) When the offender applies for financial aid
C) When the offender pleads guilty
D) When the fine remains unpaid for more than a year
Answer: When an appeal or representation is successful
61. Who determines the rent for state property occupied illegally?
A) Hearing Officer
B) Investigation Officer
C) Local Government
D) Auditor General
Answer: Hearing Officer
62. How are unpaid rents recovered if an offender does not pay?
A) By increasing their future rent
B) By selling confiscated goods
C) By writing off the amount
D) By imposing an additional fine
Answer: By selling confiscated goods
63. What is the name of the Fund established for the purposes of this Act?
A) Punjab Revenue Collection Fund
B) Punjab Regulatory and Compliance Fund
C) Punjab Enforcement and Regulatory Authority Fund
D) Punjab Law Enforcement Fund
Answer: Punjab Enforcement and Regulatory Authority Fund
64. Who administers and controls the Punjab Enforcement and Regulatory Authority Fund?
A) The Government of Punjab
B) The Authority
C) The Finance Ministry
D) The Auditor General
Answer: The Authority
65. Which of the following is NOT a source of money credited to the Fund?
A) Government funding
B) Donations from private organizations
C) Receipts permitted by the Government
D) Revenue generated from enforcement actions
Answer: Donations from private organizations
66. Who is authorized to withdraw funds for rewards, enforcement costs, and other expenses?
A) The Hearing Officer
B) The Finance Minister
C) The Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer
D) The Whistle-blower
Answer: The Hearing Officer
67. Who is responsible for maintaining financial records of the Authority?
A) The Authority
B) The Government of Punjab
C) The Auditor General of Pakistan
D) The Finance Department
Answer: The Authority
68. What must the Authority prepare annually under Section 81?
A) A budget for the next financial year
B) A financial audit report
C) A list of fines collected
D) A performance review of employees
Answer: A budget for the next financial year
69. Who audits the accounts of the Authority annually?
A) The Finance Ministry
B) The Auditor General of Pakistan
C) The Chief Minister of Punjab
D) The Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer
Answer: The Auditor General of Pakistan
70. What does the annual report submitted by the Authority NOT include?
A) A statement of accounts and audited reports
B) A list of dismissed employees
C) A summary of enforcement activities
D) Future plans of the Authority
Answer: A list of dismissed employees
71. According to the Act, to whom can the Authority delegate its powers or functions?
a) Board or other body of the Government
b) Agency or committee of the Government
c) Any of its members or employees
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
72. Which function cannot be delegated by the Authority?
a) Approving annual budget and audited accounts
b) Constituting a committee of Authority
c) Amending or repealing regulations
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
73. Who shall be deemed public servants under this Act?
a) Only the Authority members
b) Only the Government employees
c) All persons acting under the Act
d) None of the above
Answer: c) All persons acting under the Act
74. What protection is provided under the Indemnity clause?
a) Protection from suits and legal proceedings
b) Protection from internal inquiries
c) Protection from financial audits
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Protection from suits and legal proceedings
75. How shall the provisions of this Act be read with other laws?
a) Separately from other laws
b) In conjunction with the Schedule laws
c) Ignoring any conflicting laws
d) As per judicial interpretation
Answer: b) In conjunction with the Schedule laws
76. What happens in case of a conflict between this Act and any other law?
a) The other law shall prevail
b) The Act shall prevail
c) Both laws shall be considered equal
d) It will be resolved through court intervention
Answer: b) The Act shall prevail
77. What power does the Government have regarding rules?
a) It can make rules through notification
b) It can amend rules without notification
c) It has no power to make rules
d) Rules are made only by the Authority
Answer: a) It can make rules through notification
78. Who has the power to frame regulations under this Act?
a) The Government
b) The Authority
c) The Provincial Assembly
d) The Enforcement Officers
Answer: b) The Authority
79. What action can the Government take regarding regulations?
a) Direct modification or omission of regulations
b) Nullify regulations without notification
c) Frame regulations independently
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Direct modification or omission of regulations
80. How can the Government amend the Schedule?
a) By passing a new law
b) Through notification in the official Gazette
c) By consulting with the Authority
d) Through a court order
Answer: b) Through notification in the official Gazette
81. What can the Authority issue with prior approval of the Government?
a) Guidelines and code of conduct
b) New laws
c) New taxation rules
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Guidelines and code of conduct
82. What happens if there is a deviation from issued guidelines?
a) It is referred to the Authority or a prescribed authority
b) No action is taken
c) It automatically nullifies the Act
d) The guidelines are modified
Answer: a) It is referred to the Authority or a prescribed authority
83. How can the Government remove difficulties in implementing the Act?
a) By issuing notifications
b) By passing amendments in Assembly
c) By consulting with legal experts
d) By seeking judicial intervention
Answer: a) By issuing notifications
84. What must happen to any order made under the removal of difficulties section?
a) It must be laid before the Provincial Assembly of Punjab
b) It must be approved by the Supreme Court
c) It requires the President’s approval
d) It remains confidential
Answer: a) It must be laid before the Provincial Assembly of Punjab
85. Which of the following is included in the Schedule of this Act?
a) The Colonization of Government Lands (Punjab) Act, 1912
b) The Punjab Prevention of Hoarding Act, 2020
c) The Punjab Price Control of Essential Commodities Act, 2024
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
86. What is the purpose of establishing the Punjab Enforcement and Regulatory Authority?
a) To effectively implement and enforce special laws
b) To regulate private businesses
c) To replace existing government agencies
d) None of the above
Answer: a) To effectively implement and enforce special laws
87. Why is a dedicated Human Resource considered necessary?
a) Due to lack of a sustainable enforcement mechanism
b) To replace all district staff
c) To regulate private sector employment
d) To reduce government spending
Answer: a) Due to lack of a sustainable enforcement mechanism
88. What issue does the absence of an effective mechanism create?
a) Low priority for enforcement of special laws
b) Lack of public awareness
c) Increased government spending
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Low priority for enforcement of special laws
89. How are special initiatives currently implemented in districts?
a) Through staff from different departments on an ad-hoc basis
b) Through private sector agencies
c) By creating new independent offices
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Through staff from different departments on an ad-hoc basis
90. What does the Statement of Objects and Reasons emphasize?
a) The need for an Authority to address enforcement challenges
b) The importance of increasing taxation
c) The necessity of privatizing enforcement mechanisms
d) The removal of government intervention
Answer: a) The need for an Authority to address enforcement challenges