1. Which of the following is the first step in clinical history taking?
(A) Chief complaint
(B) Past medical history
(C) History of present illness
(D) Family history
2. Which question is best to start when eliciting the chief complaint?
(A) “Where do you live?”
(B) “What brings you here today?”
(C) “What is your past medical history?”
(D) “What medications are you taking?”
3. The duration, onset, and progression of symptoms are recorded in:
(A) Chief complaint
(B) History of present illness
(C) Family history
(D) Review of systems
4. The mnemonic SOCRATES is used to assess:
(A) Pain
(B) Cough
(C) Dyspnea
(D) Palpitations
5. Which of the following belongs to past medical history?
(A) Surgeries undergone
(B) Current complaint
(C) Marital status
(D) Present medications only
6. Family history is most useful for identifying:
(A) Infectious diseases
(B) Genetic and hereditary diseases
(C) Trauma-related conditions
(D) Accidents
7. Review of systems means:
(A) A general physical examination
(B) Systematic inquiry about symptoms from each body system
(C) Asking about past hospital admissions
(D) Checking vital signs only
8. Which of the following is a component of social history?
(A) Diet and exercise
(B) Present illness
(C) Blood pressure
(D) Genetic disorders
9. Which vital sign is usually measured first in physical examination?
(A) Temperature
(B) Pulse
(C) Respiratory rate
(D) Blood pressure
10. A blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg is classified as:
(A) Normal
(B) Elevated
(C) Hypertension
(D) Hypotension
11. Tachycardia is defined as pulse rate above:
(A) 80/min
(B) 90/min
(C) 100/min
(D) 120/min
12. The normal respiratory rate in adults is:
(A) 8–12/min
(B) 12–20/min
(C) 20–30/min
(D) 30–40/min
13. Clubbing of fingers is commonly associated with:
(A) Hypertension
(B) Chronic lung disease
(C) Diabetes mellitus
(D) Acute infection
14. Cyanosis is best seen in:
(A) Palms
(B) Tongue and lips
(C) Forehead
(D) Ears
15. Which is the best position to examine the precordium?
(A) Supine position
(B) Sitting upright
(C) Left lateral position
(D) Prone position
16. Which tool is used to examine the eye fundus?
(A) Otoscope
(B) Ophthalmoscope
(C) Stethoscope
(D) Laryngoscope
17. The “lub-dub” heart sounds correspond to:
(A) Valve closure
(B) Valve opening
(C) Muscle contraction
(D) Murmur formation
18. Which cranial nerve is tested by pupillary light reflex?
(A) CN II and CN III
(B) CN IV and CN VI
(C) CN V and CN VII
(D) CN VIII
19. Murphy’s sign is used to examine:
(A) Appendicitis
(B) Cholecystitis
(C) Renal colic
(D) Hernia
20. McBurney’s point tenderness is suggestive of:
(A) Pancreatitis
(B) Appendicitis
(C) Gastritis
(D) Peritonitis
21. The GCS (Glasgow Coma Scale) assesses:
(A) Pain
(B) Neurological function and consciousness
(C) Cardiac function
(D) Respiratory rate
22. The normal pupillary reaction to light is:
(A) Dilatation
(B) Constriction
(C) No change
(D) Irregularity
23. Auscultation is done with:
(A) Tongue depressor
(B) Ophthalmoscope
(C) Stethoscope
(D) Reflex hammer
24. Crepitus in a joint indicates:
(A) Inflammation
(B) Fluid collection
(C) Cartilage damage
(D) Normal movement
25. Which of the following is NOT part of inspection?
(A) Skin color
(B) Shape
(C) Temperature
(D) Scars
26. The first step in physical examination of the abdomen is:
(A) Percussion
(B) Auscultation
(C) Palpation
(D) Inspection
27. The technique of tapping to detect underlying structures is called:
(A) Inspection
(B) Percussion
(C) Palpation
(D) Auscultation
28. A “bounding pulse” is most commonly seen in:
(A) Aortic regurgitation
(B) Mitral stenosis
(C) Atrial fibrillation
(D) Heart block
29. Which cranial nerve is tested by checking facial symmetry?
(A) CN V
(B) CN VII
(C) CN IX
(D) CN XII
30. The Babinski sign is a test for:
(A) Cerebellar lesion
(B) Upper motor neuron lesion
(C) Lower motor neuron lesion
(D) Peripheral neuropathy
31. Which lobe of the lung is best examined from the anterior chest?
(A) Upper lobe
(B) Middle lobe (right)
(C) Lower lobe
(D) All lobes equally
32. Jugular venous pressure is a marker of:
(A) Right atrial pressure
(B) Left atrial pressure
(C) Aortic pressure
(D) Pulmonary artery pressure
33. Which of the following is a red flag in history taking?
(A) Sudden severe headache
(B) Mild cough
(C) Short-lived abdominal pain
(D) Occasional dizziness
34. Orthopnea is typically seen in:
(A) Heart failure
(B) COPD
(C) Asthma
(D) Pneumonia
35. Which is the normal capillary refill time?
(A) <1 second
(B) <2 seconds
(C) <4 seconds
(D) <5 seconds
36. Palpation of the thyroid gland is best done from:
(A) Behind the patient
(B) In front of the patient
(C) Side of the patient
(D) Supine position
37. A positive straight leg raising test indicates:
(A) Hip arthritis
(B) Sciatica
(C) Knee injury
(D) Ankle sprain
38. Pallor is best observed in:
(A) Nails
(B) Tongue and conjunctiva
(C) Lips only
(D) Skin only
39. Which cranial nerve is tested by checking hearing?
(A) CN V
(B) CN VII
(C) CN VIII
(D) CN IX
40. The most important sign of dehydration in adults is:
(A) Sunken eyes
(B) Skin turgor
(C) Dry mouth
(D) Hypotension
41. The normal apex beat is felt in which intercostal space?
(A) 3rd
(B) 4th
(C) 5th
(D) 6th
42. Percussion note in pleural effusion is:
(A) Resonant
(B) Dull
(C) Hyperresonant
(D) Tympanic
43. The best place to check for pitting edema is:
(A) Hand
(B) Face
(C) Ankle
(D) Abdomen
44. Which sign is checked to diagnose meningeal irritation?
(A) Murphy’s sign
(B) Rovsing’s sign
(C) Kernig’s sign
(D) Psoas sign
45. Which cranial nerve controls tongue movements?
(A) CN IX
(B) CN X
(C) CN XI
(D) CN XII
46. The gait seen in Parkinson’s disease is:
(A) Ataxic gait
(B) Festinating gait
(C) Hemiplegic gait
(D) High-stepping gait
47. A “thrill” felt on palpation indicates:
(A) Venous obstruction
(B) Severe heart murmur
(C) Hypertension
(D) Respiratory crackles
48. A stethoscope diaphragm is best used for:
(A) Low-pitched sounds
(B) High-pitched sounds
(C) Very faint sounds
(D) Bone conduction
49. The normal liver span in the mid-clavicular line is:
(A) 4–6 cm
(B) 6–12 cm
(C) 12–18 cm
18 cm” onclick=”checkAnswer(‘q49’, ‘6–12 cm’)”> (D) >18 cm
50. The knee jerk reflex is mediated by which spinal roots?
(A) L1–L2
(B) L2–L4
(C) L4–L5
(D) S1–S2