1. The most common type of anemia worldwide is:
(A) Aplastic anemia
(B) Sickle cell anemia
(C) Iron deficiency anemia
(D) Pernicious anemia
2. The normal lifespan of a red blood cell is:
(A) 60 days
(B) 90 days
(C) 120 days
(D) 150 days
3. Which vitamin is essential for red blood cell production?
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Vitamin B12
(C) Vitamin D
(D) Vitamin K
4. Howell–Jolly bodies are seen in:
(A) Sickle cell anemia
(B) Post-splenectomy
(C) Iron deficiency anemia
(D) Aplastic anemia
5. Which test is most useful for iron deficiency anemia?
(A) Serum iron
(B) Ferritin
(C) Hemoglobin electrophoresis
(D) Reticulocyte count
6. Pancytopenia is defined as:
(A) Low WBC only
(B) Low RBC and WBC only
(C) Low RBC, WBC, and platelets
(D) Low hemoglobin only
7. Which disease is associated with BCR-ABL mutation?
(A) AML
(B) ALL
(C) CML
(D) CLL
8. Philadelphia chromosome is seen in:
(A) AML
(B) CML
(C) ALL
(D) Lymphoma
9. Reed–Sternberg cells are seen in:
(A) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
(B) Hodgkin lymphoma
(C) Multiple myeloma
(D) CLL
10. Rouleaux formation of RBCs is seen in:
(A) Iron deficiency anemia
(B) Thalassemia
(C) Multiple myeloma
(D) Sickle cell anemia
11. Hemophilia A is due to deficiency of:
(A) Factor VIII
(B) Factor IX
(C) Factor XI
(D) Factor XII
12. Hemophilia B is also known as:
(A) Classic hemophilia
(B) Christmas disease
(C) Von Willebrand disease
(D) Platelet dysfunction
13. Which test is prolonged in hemophilia A and B?
(A) PT
(B) aPTT
(C) Bleeding time
(D) Platelet count
14. Which blood group is universal donor?
(A) A+
(B) AB+
(C) O–
(D) O+
15. Which blood group is universal recipient?
(A) A+
(B) AB+
(C) O–
(D) B+
16. Target cells are seen in:
(A) Thalassemia
(B) Iron deficiency anemia
(C) Aplastic anemia
(D) Megaloblastic anemia
17. Sickle cell anemia is caused by mutation in:
(A) Beta-globin chain
(B) Alpha-globin chain
(C) Hemoglobin A2
(D) Fetal hemoglobin
18. Heinz bodies are seen in:
(A) G6PD deficiency
(B) Sickle cell anemia
(C) Thalassemia
(D) Iron deficiency anemia
19. Most common inherited bleeding disorder is:
(A) Hemophilia A
(B) Hemophilia B
(C) Von Willebrand disease
(D) Factor VII deficiency
20. Vitamin K is essential for synthesis of:
(A) Factors II, VII, IX, X
(B) Factors I, II, V
(C) Platelets
(D) Hemoglobin
21. Bone marrow in aplastic anemia is:
(A) Hypocellular
(B) Hypercellular
(C) Normal cellular
(D) Fibrotic
22. MCV is high in:
(A) Iron deficiency anemia
(B) Thalassemia
(C) Megaloblastic anemia
(D) Anemia of chronic disease
23. Schistocytes are seen in:
(A) Aplastic anemia
(B) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
(C) Iron deficiency anemia
(D) Sickle cell anemia
24. The normal hemoglobin level in adult females is:
(A) 8–10 g/dL
(B) 10–12 g/dL
(C) 12–16 g/dL
(D) 16–18 g/dL
25. Reticulocyte count is increased in:
(A) Hemolytic anemia
(B) Aplastic anemia
(C) Iron deficiency anemia
(D) Megaloblastic anemia
26. Which antibody is associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
(A) IgA
(B) IgM
(C) IgG
(D) IgE
27. Coombs test is used for:
(A) Hemolytic anemia
(B) Iron deficiency anemia
(C) Aplastic anemia
(D) Thalassemia
28. Which hemoglobin is predominant in adults?
(A) HbA1 (α2β2)
(B) HbF (α2γ2)
(C) HbA2 (α2δ2)
(D) HbS
29. Which hemoglobin is predominant in fetus?
(A) HbA1
(B) HbA2
(C) HbF
(D) HbS
30. Basophilic stippling is seen in:
(A) Lead poisoning
(B) Iron deficiency anemia
(C) Aplastic anemia
(D) Sickle cell anemia
31. Hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in:
(A) Megaloblastic anemia
(B) Iron deficiency anemia
(C) Thalassemia
(D) Aplastic anemia
32. The most common leukemia in adults is:
(A) ALL
(B) AML
(C) CML
(D) CLL
33. The most common leukemia in children is:
(A) ALL
(B) AML
(C) CML
(D) CLL
34. Myeloblasts with Auer rods are seen in:
(A) ALL
(B) AML
(C) CML
(D) CLL
35. Smudge cells are characteristic of:
(A) AML
(B) ALL
(C) CML
(D) CLL
36. Which leukemia is associated with Down syndrome?
(A) ALL
(B) AML (M7)
(C) CLL
(D) CML
37. Which lymphoma is most common?
(A) Hodgkin lymphoma
(B) Burkitt’s lymphoma
(C) Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
(D) Follicular lymphoma
38. Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with:
(A) EBV
(B) CMV
(C) HPV
(D) HIV
39. Multiple myeloma is diagnosed by:
(A) M protein spike
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(C) Lytic bone lesions
(D) All of the above
40. Bence–Jones protein is seen in:
(A) Thalassemia
(B) Multiple myeloma
(C) Hodgkin lymphoma
(D) Aplastic anemia
41. Which test is used to measure intrinsic pathway?
(A) PT
(B) aPTT
(C) INR
(D) Platelet count
42. Which test is used to measure extrinsic pathway?
(A) PT
(B) aPTT
(C) Thrombin time
(D) Platelet function test
43. Which is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in hospitalized patients?
(A) ITP
(B) HIT (Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia)
(C) Aplastic anemia
(D) DIC
44. Which disease shows prolonged PT and aPTT, low platelets, and raised D-dimer?
(A) Hemophilia
(B) ITP
(C) DIC
(D) TTP
45. Which disease shows microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and renal failure?
(A) ITP
(B) HUS
(C) DIC
(D) Aplastic anemia
46. Which test is used to confirm thalassemia?
(A) Ferritin
(B) Hemoglobin electrophoresis
(C) Peripheral smear
(D) Reticulocyte count
47. Which blood component is given for hemophilia?
(A) Platelets
(B) FFP (fresh frozen plasma)
(C) Packed RBCs
(D) Cryoprecipitate
48. Which is the most common inherited hypercoagulable state?
(A) Protein C deficiency
(B) Factor V Leiden mutation
(C) Antithrombin III deficiency
(D) Protein S deficiency
49. Which anticoagulant is safe in pregnancy?
(A) Warfarin
(B) Heparin
(C) Dabigatran
(D) Rivaroxaban
50. Which vitamin deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia?
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin B12 and folate
(D) Vitamin K