Endotracheal intubation MCQs – Anesthesia

By: Prof. Dr. Fazal Rehman Shamil | Last updated: September 13, 2024

Endotracheal Intubation MCQs – Anesthesia

1. What is the primary goal of endotracheal intubation?
   a) To administer intravenous fluids
   b) To provide controlled ventilation
   c) To monitor blood pressure
   d) To deliver oral medicationsAnswer: b) To provide controlled ventilation
2. Which type of endotracheal tube is most commonly used for general anesthesia?
   a) Cuffed tube
   b) Uncuffed tube
   c) Double-lumen tube
   d) Endobronchial tubeAnswer: a) Cuffed tube
3. What is the purpose of the cuff on an endotracheal tube?
   a) To prevent aspiration
   b) To ensure proper ventilation
   c) To secure the tube in place
   d) To protect the vocal cordsAnswer: a) To prevent aspiration
4. Which technique is commonly used to visualize the vocal cords during intubation?
   a) Fiberoptic bronchoscopy
   b) Direct laryngoscopy
   c) Indirect laryngoscopy
   d) Video laryngoscopyAnswer: b) Direct laryngoscopy
5. What is the recommended position for intubation in most patients?
   a) Supine
   b) Prone
   c) Lateral
   d) Fowler’s positionAnswer: a) Supine
6. Which of the following is a common complication associated with endotracheal intubation?
   a) Hyperthermia
   b) Pneumothorax
   c) Hyperglycemia
   d) HypertensionAnswer: b) Pneumothorax
7. Which size of endotracheal tube is typically used for adult females?
   a) 5.0-6.0 mm
   b) 6.0-7.0 mm
   c) 7.0-8.0 mm
   d) 8.0-9.0 mmAnswer: b) 6.0-7.0 mm
8. What is the most important step to confirm correct endotracheal tube placement?
   a) Auscultation of breath sounds
   b) Visual inspection
   c) Measurement of tube length
   d) Checking the cuff pressureAnswer: a) Auscultation of breath sounds
9. Which maneuver is commonly used to facilitate intubation by improving the view of the vocal cords?
   a) Sellick maneuver
   b) Burp maneuver
   c) Jaw thrust
   d) Head tilt-chin liftAnswer: d) Head tilt-chin lift
10. What is the purpose of the Sellick maneuver during intubation?
    a) To stabilize the patient
    b) To apply pressure to the cricoid cartilage
    c) To aid in tube placement
    d) To provide additional sedationAnswer: b) To apply pressure to the cricoid cartilage
11. Which of the following is an indication for rapid sequence intubation?
    a) Awake intubation
    b) Non-emergency intubation
    c) Known difficult airway
    d) Emergency airway managementAnswer: d) Emergency airway management
12. What is the primary purpose of pre-oxygenation before intubation?
    a) To sedate the patient
    b) To increase oxygen reserves in the body
    c) To prevent aspiration
    d) To ensure proper tube placementAnswer: b) To increase oxygen reserves in the body
13. Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of a cuffed endotracheal tube in children?
    a) Chronic lung disease
    b) Anticipated long procedure
    c) Age under 8 years
    d) Known airway obstructionAnswer: c) Age under 8 years
14. Which intubation technique involves using a flexible scope to visualize the airway?
    a) Fiberoptic intubation
    b) Video laryngoscopy
    c) Direct laryngoscopy
    d) Blind intubationAnswer: a) Fiberoptic intubation
15. What is the purpose of the end-tidal CO2 monitor during intubation?
    a) To measure blood pressure
    b) To confirm proper tube placement
    c) To detect hypoventilation
    d) To monitor heart rateAnswer: b) To confirm proper tube placement
16. Which medication is commonly used as a paralytic agent during rapid sequence intubation?
    a) Atropine
    b) Propofol
    c) Succinylcholine
    d) MidazolamAnswer: c) Succinylcholine
17. What is the maximum recommended cuff pressure for an endotracheal tube?
    a) 10-20 mmHg
    b) 20-30 mmHg
    c) 30-40 mmHg
    d) 40-50 mmHgAnswer: b) 20-30 mmHg
18. Which of the following is a common complication of prolonged endotracheal intubation?
    a) Hypovolemia
    b) Vocal cord paralysis
    c) Hyperthermia
    d) HypoglycemiaAnswer: b) Vocal cord paralysis
19. What is the primary advantage of video laryngoscopy over direct laryngoscopy?
    a) Easier tube insertion
    b) Reduced risk of esophageal intubation
    c) Improved visualization of the vocal cords
    d) Faster intubation timeAnswer: c) Improved visualization of the vocal cords
20. Which of the following is an appropriate initial step in the intubation process?
    a) Inflate the cuff
    b) Pre-oxygenate the patient
    c) Insert the tube
    d) Check tube placementAnswer: b) Pre-oxygenate the patient
21. Which position is commonly used for intubation in patients with suspected cervical spine injuries?
    a) Head tilt-chin lift
    b) Neutral position
    c) Trendelenburg position
    d) Lateral positionAnswer: b) Neutral position
22. Which type of endotracheal tube is used for airway management in patients with potential or confirmed airway obstruction?
    a) Double-lumen tube
    b) Cuffed tube
    c) Uncuffed tube
    d) Endobronchial tubeAnswer: a) Double-lumen tube
23. What is the purpose of auscultating the epigastric area during intubation?
    a) To check for proper tube placement
    b) To assess for aspiration
    c) To detect respiratory distress
    d) To monitor blood pressureAnswer: b) To assess for aspiration
24. Which intubation technique uses a rigid scope to visualize the vocal cords?
    a) Fiberoptic intubation
    b) Video laryngoscopy
    c) Direct laryngoscopy
    d) Blind intubationAnswer: c) Direct laryngoscopy
25. What is the purpose of the tube securing device?
    a) To prevent tube displacement
    b) To reduce tube friction
    c) To monitor cuff pressure
    d) To facilitate easy removalAnswer: a) To prevent tube displacement
26. Which of the following can indicate improper endotracheal tube placement?
    a) Bilateral breath sounds
    b) Absence of end-tidal CO2
    c) Normal oxygen saturation
    d) Clear chest X-rayAnswer: b) Absence of end-tidal CO2
27. What is the most common size endotracheal tube used for adult males?
    a) 5.0 mm
    b) 6.0 mm
    c) 7.0 mm
    d) 8.0 mmAnswer: c) 7.0 mm
28. Which intubation technique involves inserting the tube blindly?
    a) Fiberoptic intubation
    b) Direct laryngoscopy
    c) Blind intubation
    d) Video laryngoscopyAnswer: c) Blind intubation
29. Which of the following is an early sign of endotracheal tube displacement?
    a) Hypoxemia
    b) Hypertension
    c) Hyperglycemia
    d) HyperthermiaAnswer: a) Hypoxemia
30. Which local anesthetic is commonly used for topical anesthesia during intubation?
    a) Lidocaine
    b) Bupivacaine
    c) Ropivacaine
    d) TetracaineAnswer: a) Lidocaine
31. What is the purpose of using a stylet in endotracheal intubation?
    a) To increase tube flexibility
    b) To stabilize the tube
    c) To guide the tube into the trachea
    d) To inflate the cuffAnswer: c) To guide the tube into the trachea
32. Which maneuver can be used to improve visualization of the vocal cords in a patient with a difficult airway?
    a) Sellick maneuver
    b) Burp maneuver
    c) Jaw thrust
    d) Head tilt-chin liftAnswer: b) Burp maneuver
33. What is the recommended depth of endotracheal tube insertion for adults?
    a) 20-22 cm at the lips
    b) 22-24 cm at the lips
    c) 24-26 cm at the lips
    d) 26-28 cm at the lipsAnswer: b) 22-24 cm at the lips
34. Which of the following is a contraindication for endotracheal intubation?
    a) Anticipated airway obstruction
    b) Unresponsive patient
    c) Full stomach
    d) Severe hypoxemiaAnswer: c) Full stomach
35. What is the main advantage of endotracheal tube cuff inflation?
    a) Enhanced tube stability
    b) Reduced aspiration risk
    c) Improved oxygenation
    d) Faster intubationAnswer: b) Reduced aspiration risk
36. Which monitoring tool helps confirm that the endotracheal tube is in the trachea rather than the esophagus?
    a) Pulse oximeter
    b) End-tidal CO2 detector
    c) ECG monitor
    d) Blood pressure cuffAnswer: b) End-tidal CO2 detector
37. What is the purpose of the endotracheal tube cuff pressure monitor?
    a) To ensure adequate ventilation
    b) To prevent tube displacement
    c) To avoid over-inflation of the cuff
    d) To facilitate easy removalAnswer: c) To avoid over-inflation of the cuff
38. Which of the following can be used as a guide during blind intubation?
    a) Fiberoptic bronchoscope
    b) Rigid laryngoscope
    c) Stylet
    d) Video laryngoscopeAnswer: c) Stylet
39. What is a common alternative to endotracheal intubation in patients with a difficult airway?
    a) Nasotracheal intubation
    b) Laryngeal mask airway
    c) Combitube
    d) TracheostomyAnswer: b) Laryngeal mask airway
40. Which of the following is an advantage of using a cuffed endotracheal tube in pediatric patients?
    a) Reduced risk of aspiration
    b) Increased airway resistance
    c) Greater discomfort
    d) Difficulty in securing the tubeAnswer: a) Reduced risk of aspiration
41. What is the primary purpose of the Murphy eye on an endotracheal tube?
    a) To enhance ventilation
    b) To prevent tube obstruction
    c) To secure the tube
    d) To aid in cuff inflationAnswer: b) To prevent tube obstruction
42. What is the typical volume of air used to inflate the cuff of an endotracheal tube?
    a) 1-5 mL
    b) 5-10 mL
    c) 10-15 mL
    d) 15-20 mLAnswer: b) 5-10 mL
43. What is the recommended action if the endotracheal tube is not passing through the vocal cords?
    a) Increase the depth of intubation
    b) Use a different size tube
    c) Reposition the patient and try again
    d) Inflate the cuffAnswer: c) Reposition the patient and try again
44. Which of the following is a sign of successful endotracheal intubation?
    a) No audible breath sounds
    b) No end-tidal CO2
    c) Positive chest rise with ventilation
    d) Decreased oxygen saturationAnswer: c) Positive chest rise with ventilation
45. Which maneuver helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration during intubation?
    a) Head tilt-chin lift
    b) Sellick maneuver
    c) Jaw thrust
    d) Burp maneuverAnswer: b) Sellick maneuver
46. What is the purpose of the endotracheal tube stylet?
    a) To secure the tube in place
    b) To provide rigidity to the tube for insertion
    c) To monitor cuff pressure
    d) To aid in cuff inflationAnswer: b) To provide rigidity to the tube for insertion
47. Which of the following is a potential complication of incorrect endotracheal tube placement?
    a) Hypercapnia
    b) Hyperglycemia
    c) Hypertension
    d) HyperthermiaAnswer: a) Hypercapnia
48. Which device can be used to visualize the airway without direct laryngoscopy?
    a) Fiberoptic bronchoscope
    b) Rigid laryngoscope
    c) Stylet
    d) End-tidal CO2 detectorAnswer: a) Fiberoptic bronchoscope
49. Which of the following techniques is used to confirm proper endotracheal tube placement during ventilation?
    a) End-tidal CO2 detection
    b) Blood gas analysis
    c) ECG monitoring
    d) Blood pressure measurementAnswer: a) End-tidal CO2 detection
50. What should be done if the patient’s oxygen saturation drops during intubation?
    a) Recheck tube placement
    b) Increase cuff pressure
    c) Administer more sedative
    d) Increase ventilator rateAnswer: a) Recheck tube placement

Topic-wise Anesthesia MCQs

1. Anesthesiology MCQs
2. Anesthesia Basics:
   • Levels of sedation and anesthesia MCQs
   • Stages of anesthesia MCQs
3. Anesthesia Agents MCQs:
   • Inhaled anesthetics MCQs
   • Intravenous anesthetics MCQs
   • Neuromuscular blocking agents MCQs
   • Local anesthetics MCQs
4. Airway Management:
   • Endotracheal intubation MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Supraglottic airway devices MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Video laryngoscopy MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Difficult airway management MCQs – Anesthesia
5. Anesthesia Monitoring MCQs – Anesthesia:
   • Hemodynamic monitoring MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Pulse oximetry MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Capnography MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Temperature monitoring MCQs – Anesthesia
6. Regional Anesthesia MCQs :
   • Epidural anesthesia MCQs
   • Spinal anesthesia MCQs
   • Peripheral nerve blocks MCQs
7. Patient Assessment and Optimization:
   • Pre-operative assessment MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Patient history and physical examination MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Risk assessment and optimization MCQs – Anesthesia
8. Anesthesia Delivery Systems MCQs:
   • Inhalation anesthesia machines MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Intravenous anesthesia techniques MCQs – Anesthesia
9. Pediatric Anesthesia MCQs :
   • Considerations for anesthesia in pediatric patients MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Pediatric airway management MCQs – Anesthesia
   • Pediatric drug dosages MCQs – Anesthesia
10. Obstetric Anesthesia MCQs – Anesthesia:
    • Anesthesia for labor and delivery MCQs
    • Epidural analgesia in obstetrics MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Anesthetic considerations for cesarean section
11. Anesthesia Complications and Emergencies MCQs:
    • Malignant hyperthermia MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Anaphylaxis MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Cardiac arrest during anesthesia MCQs – Anesthesia
12. Post-Anesthesia Care MCQs:
    • Recovery room management MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Pain management strategies MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Post-operative complications related to anesthesia MCQs
13. Geriatric Anesthesia:
    • Considerations for anesthesia in elderly patients MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Geriatric pharmacology MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Management of common comorbidities MCQs – Anesthesia
14. Ethics and Professionalism in Anesthesia MCQs:
    • Informed consent MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Patient autonomy MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Professional conduct and communication MCQs – Anesthesia
15. Simulation and Skills Training MCQs :
    • Hands-on training in airway management and procedures MCQs – Anesthesia
    • Simulation exercises for crisis management MCQs – Anesthesia